Originally posted by menace71
G75 How about these questions can you answer these?
Let's consider some passages where the OT is speaking of Jehovah, and the New Testament writers quote it and apply it to Christ:
 Hebrews 1:10 is a quotation of the LXX version of Ps. 102:25. The Psalm is unquestionably speaking of Jehovah, yet the writer of Hebrews applies it to Christ! Knowing t Mt. 7:22; 10:22; 12:15-21; 18:5,20; 19:29; 24:9; 28:19,20 (just to cite Matthew).
Application to Jesus Christ by inspired Bible writers of passages from the Hebrew Scriptures that clearly apply to Jehovah
Why does John 1:23 quote Isaiah 40:3 and apply it to what John the Baptizer did in preparing the way for Jesus Christ, when Isaiah 40:3 is clearly discussing preparing the way before Jehovah? Because Jesus represented his Father. He came in his Father’s name and had the assurance that his Father was always with him because he did the things pleasing to his Father.—John 5:43; 8:29.
Why does Hebrews 1:10-12 quote Psalm 102:25-27 and apply it to the Son, when the psalm says that it is addressed to God? Because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.) It should be observed in Hebrews 1:5b that a quotation is made from 2 Samuel 7:14 and applied to the Son of God.
Although that text had its first application to Solomon, the later application of it to Jesus Christ does not mean that Solomon and Jesus are the same. Jesus is “greater than Solomon” and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solomon.—Luke 11:31.
If the name of Christ holds more importance why does he state that we should ask for not his name, but the name of God to be sanctified? why dont you people use and sanctify that name as Christ evidently did?
(Matthew 6:9-13) . . .“‘Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified
. Let your kingdom come. Let your will take place, as in heaven, also upon earth. Give us today our bread for this day; and forgive us our debts, as we also have forgiven our debtors. And do not bring us into temptation, but deliver us from the wicked one.’
why have you systematically removed it from your bibles and replaced it with the inane and meaningless lord? tell the forum Manny why your translators have done that? what authority they had to do that?
(John 5:43-44) I have come in the name of my Father
, but you do not receive me; if someone else arrived in his own name, you would receive that one. How can you believe, when you are accepting glory from one another and you are not seeking the glory that is from the only God?
(John 10:25) . . .The works that I am doing in the name of my Father
, these bear witness about me. . .
(John 12:28) . . .Father, glorify your name.
Therefore a voice came out of heaven: “I both glorified it and will glorify it again.. . .
(John 17:6-8) . . .“I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world.
They were yours, and you gave them to me, and they have observed your word. They have now come to know that all the things you gave me are from you; because the sayings that you gave me I have given to them, and they have received them and have certainly come to know that I came out as your representative, and they have believed that you sent me forth.
Christ evidently felt the need to make Gods name manifest, to glorify it and to sanctify it, why dont you? rather than removing it from the sacred text, its no wonder that you people dont get it, a trinitarian dogma superimposed upon scripture leads to yet more distorted reasoning. Thus we have the biblical example of Christ and those who profess the trinity on the other hand, so if you dont mind Manny, i think we would rather follow the example of Christ than some distorted reasoning based on pre Christian and pagan concept, if you please.