1. Standard memberscottishinnz
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    14 May '08 15:59
    Originally posted by endgamer
    Note, I personally disagree with slavery on all levels but...
    Another interesting thoguth is that our idea of slavery is different than the biblical idea of slavery. In our culture's idea of slavery, slavery is forced upon the individual. During the bible times, people would sell themselves into servitude if they could not pay debts. At this point in ti ...[text shortened]... ve to say you have horrible understanding of truth. That man forced slavery upon his family.
    During biblical times, whole civilisations were forced into slavery.

    Slavery wasn't so different then.

    Anyway, an omniscient God would know what was to become of slavery. A truely omniscient God would write a book which requires no translation, and does not have differential relevence based upon when it is read.
  2. Joined
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    14 May '08 16:391 edit
    Christians usually inundate these threads. I guess this "debate" is a slam-dunk win for the atheists/unbelievers since not a single one of our usually prolific Christian posters is defending God's sanctioning of the killing of slaves.
  3. Standard memberzozozozo
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    15 May '08 00:06
    Originally posted by twhitehead
    Actually your correctness is unknown until you are proven right or wrong. If you were correct then proven wrong that would entail a logical contradiction.
    Correct!

    So ppl who think god exists, cant be correct about that, till its proven to be correct. no prove, no reason to belive god exists, right?
  4. Standard memberscottishinnz
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    15 May '08 00:23
    Originally posted by zozozozo
    Correct!

    So ppl who think god exists, cant be correct about that, till its proven to be correct. no prove, no reason to belive god exists, right?
    You are discussing the concept of parsimony.

    I agree, you are probably right in your assertion that God does not exist. However, twhitehead is correct in that you are not "correct by default". Your conclusion is simply the most likely to be correct, until further evidence is provided.
  5. Standard memberzozozozo
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    15 May '08 00:35
    Originally posted by scottishinnz
    You are discussing the concept of parsimony.

    I agree, you are probably right in your assertion that God does not exist. However, twhitehead is correct in that you are not "correct by default". Your conclusion is simply the [b]most likely
    to be correct, until further evidence is provided.[/b]
    i know, im not correct on deafault ofcouse, but then, so cant christians be about god on default.
    So lets not belive in such a thing, before theres some proof for it.

    I think in history, alot of things where unexplainable to people, thats why they made up storys witch explained things.

    I hope some day we can all agree on the (then a proven) fact that god doesnt not exist, like we could all when we found out the earth isnt plath...doubt such a day will come tho🙁
  6. Standard memberscottishinnz
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    15 May '08 01:12
    Originally posted by zozozozo
    i know, im not correct on deafault ofcouse, but then, so cant christians be about god on default.
    So lets not belive in such a thing, before theres some proof for it.

    I think in history, alot of things where unexplainable to people, thats why they made up storys witch explained things.

    I hope some day we can all agree on the (then a proven) fact that ...[text shortened]... ist, like we could all when we found out the earth isnt plath...doubt such a day will come tho🙁
    I agree.
  7. Cape Town
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    15 May '08 06:26
    Originally posted by endgamer
    Note, I personally disagree with slavery on all levels but...
    Another interesting thoguth is that our idea of slavery is different than the biblical idea of slavery. In our culture's idea of slavery, slavery is forced upon the individual. During the bible times, people would sell themselves into servitude if they could not pay debts. At this point in time the became property.
    The 'Biblical idea of slavery' included all sorts. If you think the only slaves during Biblical times were slaves by choice you are wrong. Many people were made slaves by force as a result of war, some were born into slavery, some were forced into slavery to settle debts (by court decision not choice) etc etc. The fact that an owner was allowed to beat his slave to near death shows that they were treated no better than any other slaves - except societies which allowed beating to death, but it is quite likely that even in Biblical times the death of slaves was not always taken too seriously.
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    07 Aug '08 05:14
    Originally posted by zozozozo
    i am correct, untill u prove me wrong;
    God doesnt exist,
    and the bible are just a bunch of storys in a book.
    If you don't believe in God why are in that spiritual section? I often hear athiest are tired of christain shoven our beliefs down your throats. Well tired of non believers doing the same thing. Get out and start your own forum for non believers.
  9. weedhopper
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    07 Aug '08 05:46
    Originally posted by PawnChop
    When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB)

    I've always been interested in this biblical philosophy. Does this mean you can beat your slave with a rod to a pulp and if he survives the beating but dies on day 3 then it's ok with God?
    Certainly not. And we aren't under the law anymore--check out the New Testament.
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    11 Aug '08 09:18
    Originally posted by PawnChop
    When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB)

    I've always been interested in this biblical philosophy. Does this mean you can beat your slave with a rod to a pulp and if he survives the beating but dies on day 3 then it's ok with God?
    it is the old testament, much of it was written by people with their own view on god who wished to impose that view on the others.
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    11 Aug '08 16:02
    Originally posted by FabianFnas
    Even Paul says that slavery is okay. So if you are christian, it's not a big deal to take a slave.
    Josef Fritzl in Austria, who had his cellar full of people, is a true christian.
    Your statement sounds more like what you say Paul said. I know of no verse where Paul made such a statement.
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    11 Aug '08 16:39
    Originally posted by PawnChop
    When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB)

    I've always been interested in this biblical philosophy. Does this mean you can beat your slave with a rod to a pulp and if he survives the beating but dies on day 3 then it's ok with God?
    No. In verse 20 the slave is beaten and dies. Time is not mentioned. In verse 21 the slave is beaten and in time recovers and continues serving. A better question is why is he allowed to beat the slave?
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    12 Aug '08 12:09
    Originally posted by gambit3
    No. In verse 20 the slave is beaten and dies. Time is not mentioned. In verse 21 the slave is beaten and in time recovers and continues serving. A better question is why is he allowed to beat the slave?
    because a slave owner wrote that part of the bible or someone writing for a slave owner just as the slave owning founding fathers of amerika "forgot" to mention that any man of any color is born free.
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    12 Aug '08 20:43
    Originally posted by Zahlanzi
    because a slave owner wrote that part of the bible or someone writing for a slave owner just as the slave owning founding fathers of amerika "forgot" to mention that any man of any color is born free.
    As far as I know Moses was the human author of the first five books and the book of Job.
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    13 Aug '08 09:55
    Originally posted by gambit3
    As far as I know Moses was the human author of the first five books and the book of Job.
    says who? and didn't job lived (if he isn't fictional) years after moses?
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