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    19 Jun '11 23:005 edits
    In the following passage Jesus explained to the Jews that in using the term "Son of God" He was referring to ALL those "to whom the word of God came" and was not "making [Himself] to be God".

    John 10
    31The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” 33The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.” 34Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I SAID, YOU ARE GODS’? 35“If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), 36do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?

    Why do so many Christians not believe His explanation?
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    20 Jun '11 00:06
    Originally posted by ThinkOfOne
    In the following passage Jesus explained to the Jews that in using the term "Son of God" He was referring to ALL those "to whom the word of God came" and was not "making [Himself] to be God".

    John 10
    31The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stonin ...[text shortened]... aid, ‘I am the Son of God’?


    Why do so many Christians not believe His explanation?[/b]
    who are these Christian infidels that you speak of?
  3. Joined
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    20 Jun '11 00:08
    Originally posted by robbie carrobie
    who are these Christian infidels that you speak of?
    You don't know?
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    20 Jun '11 00:10
    Originally posted by ThinkOfOne
    You don't know?
    If i knew would i be asking you?
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    20 Jun '11 00:25
    Originally posted by robbie carrobie
    If i knew would i be asking you?
    Wouldn't be out of character for you.
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    20 Jun '11 00:28
    Originally posted by ThinkOfOne
    Wouldn't be out of character for you.
    sooo we still dont know, ok, i am going to sleep, i expect an answer by morning.
  7. Joined
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    20 Jun '11 00:44
    Originally posted by robbie carrobie
    sooo we still dont know, ok, i am going to sleep, i expect an answer by morning.
    lol. Some things never change. In your case, it's not a good thing.
  8. Standard memberRJHinds
    The Near Genius
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    20 Jun '11 07:08
    Originally posted by ThinkOfOne
    In the following passage Jesus explained to the Jews that in using the term "Son of God" He was referring to ALL those "to whom the word of God came" and was not "making [Himself] to be God".

    John 10
    31The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stonin ...[text shortened]... aid, ‘I am the Son of God’?


    Why do so many Christians not believe His explanation?[/b]
    But do you really understand who was being referred to when He said,
    "I SAID, YOU ARE GODS"?
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    20 Jun '11 09:00
    Originally posted by RJHinds
    But do you really understand who was being referred to when He said,
    "I SAID, YOU ARE GODS"?
    Why did Jesus use the word "Son" here? Why not go ahead and explain clearly as this was a great opportunity to let us all know he was actually God but temporarily in a fleshly form?
    Could it be because he is (((((((( ACTUALLY the SON)))))))) of God and (((((((( NOT ))))))))) God?
    So according to the trinity belief that he is God, then Jesus lied in this instance as well as all the other times he said he was the (((((((( SON )))))))))) of God. Right?
  10. Joined
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    20 Jun '11 09:25
    1 Corinthians 15:21-28
    New American Standard Bible (NASB)

    21 For since by a man came death, by a man also came the resurrection of the dead.
    22 For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive.
    23 But each in his own order: Christ the first fruits, after that those who are Christ’s at His coming,
    24 then comes the end, when He hands over the kingdom to the God and Father, when He has abolished all rule and all authority and power.
    25 For He must reign until He has put all His enemies under His feet.
    26 The last enemy that will be abolished is death.
    27 For HE HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET. But when He says, “All things are put in subjection,” it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him.
    28 When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all."

    Now unless the english language we all speak here on this forum has changed and words we're all used to using to explain certian things such as the word
    "subjection" which would clearly emply a position of being lower to another would now mean"equality" or a position of being equal, then the ones who believe in the trinity could smile from ear to ear in happiness.
    But I'm not aware that the term "subjection" has changed in it's meaning and now means being equal to another such the trinity teaches.
  11. Illinois
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    20 Jun '11 10:172 edits
    Originally posted by ThinkOfOne
    In the following passage Jesus explained to the Jews that in using the term "Son of God" He was referring to ALL those "to whom the word of God came" and was not "making [Himself] to be God".

    John 10
    31The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stonin ...[text shortened]... aid, ‘I am the Son of God’?


    Why do so many Christians not believe His explanation?[/b]
    What Jesus is saying is that the Pharisees have no basis in scripture for being offended by His referring to Himself as God's Son, provided He does the works. What He is definitely not saying is that there are others with equal authority as Himself.

    Elsewhere in scripture, for instance, Jesus clearly understood Himself to be the only Son of God Reveal Hidden Content
    (John 10:36; Mark 14:61-62; John 5:25; Matt 11:27; John 8:58-59)
    . Therefore, Jesus cannot be saying, in the passage you've provided Reveal Hidden Content
    (John 10:31-36)
    , that he is no different than those "to whom the word of God came." I think this is evident even by the specific wording of the passage apart from context: "If he called them gods... (v. 35)—Jesus never referred to Himself as a god, but the Son of God.
  12. Joined
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    20 Jun '11 11:11
    Originally posted by ThinkOfOne
    In the following passage Jesus explained to the Jews that in using the term "Son of God" He was referring to ALL those "to whom the word of God came" and was not "making [Himself] to be God".

    John 10
    31The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stonin ...[text shortened]... aid, ‘I am the Son of God’?


    Why do so many Christians not believe His explanation?[/b]
    Why were the Jews going to stone Jesus?
  13. Standard memberChessPraxis
    Cowboy From Hell
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    20 Jun '11 15:15
    Originally posted by ThinkOfOne
    In the following passage Jesus explained to the Jews that in using the term "Son of God" He was referring to ALL those "to whom the word of God came" and was not "making [Himself] to be God".

    John 10
    31The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32Jesus answered them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stonin ...[text shortened]... aid, ‘I am the Son of God’?


    Why do so many Christians not believe His explanation?[/b]
    1 Timothy 3:16 (King James Version)

    16And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
  14. St. Peter's
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    20 Jun '11 18:31
    Originally posted by ChessPraxis
    1 Timothy 3:16 (King James Version)

    16And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
    interesting...God was manifest in the flesh...justified in the Spirit you say...hhhmmmmm sounds suspiciously trinitarian. Any comments Galvo?
  15. St. Peter's
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    20 Jun '11 18:32
    Originally posted by galveston75
    Why did Jesus use the word "Son" here? Why not go ahead and explain clearly as this was a great opportunity to let us all know he was actually God but temporarily in a fleshly form?
    Could it be because he is (((((((( ACTUALLY the SON)))))))) of God and (((((((( NOT ))))))))) God?
    So according to the trinity belief that he is God, then Jesus lied i ...[text shortened]... tance as well as all the other times he said he was the (((((((( SON )))))))))) of God. Right?
    Yes of course, Before his work was finished he should have walked up to people and said "Hey fella..I'm God, so bow down and worship me!"πŸ™„

    Nope, your right Galvo! your way is so much better than the way God planned itπŸ˜‰
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