1. Standard memberNemesio
    Ursulakantor
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    31 Mar '07 23:32
    Originally posted by vistesd
    Could you please indulge my lazy-man's research and tell me what was MM's "refractory period"?
    Ack. It was Martha's refractory period. She tells Jesus that she has 'come to believe,'
    indicating that there had been doubt, but upon further examination and reflection, has accepted.

    All who are interested in spirituality ought to go through such periods of confusion and doubt,
    followed by periods of examination, exploration and introspection, which should lead to stances of a
    firmer, more informed faith. The tenets of one's faith should never be static, should always be
    subject to question. And, when we find ourselves posed with a question we cannot adequately answer,
    or, more complicatedly, one which exposes a flaw within a previous stance we held, we ought to
    reflect on it and be prepared to change so that our faiths grow, and we might grow in holiness.

    Nemesio
  2. Hmmm . . .
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    01 Apr '07 19:08
    Originally posted by Nemesio
    Originally posted by epiphinehas
    [b]"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).


    The word for 'word' is logos, a Hellenistic construct with a much
    greater significance than 'word' (although there isn't a good single-word
    translation for it). However, the translation 'and the Word was ma ...[text shortened]... .

    Nemesio[/b]
    The word for 'word' is logos, a Hellenistic construct with a much greater significance than 'word' (although there isn't a good single-word translation for it).

    Apparently, the Stoics understood it as either “an all-pervading force” or as “the rational principle” that is responsible for the coherence of the world. (Gregory Hays, Marcus Aurelius’ Meditations, from Hays’ introduction.) Hays too claims that logos has a semantic range so broad as to be almost untranslatable.”

    Re, your identification (as I understood you anyway) of logos with pneuma, Hays indicates a similar kind of identification for the Stoics:

    “But the logos is not simply an impersonal power that governs and directs the world. It is also an actual substance that pervades the world, not in a metaphorical sense but in a form as concrete as oxygen or carbon. In its physical embodiment, the logos exists as pneuma, a substance imagined by the earliest Stoics as pure fire, and by Chrysippus as a mixture of fire and air. Pneuma is the power—the vital breath—that animates animals and humans. It is, in Dylan Thomas’s phrase, “the force that through the green fuse drives the flower,” and is present even in lifeless materials like stone or metal as the energy that holds the object together—the internal tension that makes the stone a stone. All objects are thus a compound of lifeless substance and vital force.”

    I would not see it in quite this sense—but it is interesting anyway. The wind/fire notion is the basis for my poetic rendition of John 3:8 (wherein pneuma is usually rendered as “wind” in the first occurrence, and “spirit” in the second):

    Wind-fire where it wishes blows;
    the sound of it you hear, but do not know
    whence it comes nor where it goes—
    those who are born of wind-fire wayfare so.

    ____________________________________

    However, the translation 'and the Word was made flesh' is inaccurate, or rather insufficient. Better capturing the words of the author, it should read 'and the Word was enfleshed.'

    > NRS John 1:3 All things came into being (egeneto) through him, and without him not one thing came into being (egeneto)....

    This word egeneto is interesting. It is different from poieo, to make, construct or form (the word used in the Greek LXX to translate bara, “created,” in Genesis 1:1, for example); and from ktizo, to create, found or establish. It’s root is ginomai—to become, to be born, to happen, to appear, to arise, to be produced or engendered. It is the same root that is translated as “beget.”

    John gets a lot of further play out of this word—

    > NRS 1:3-4 What has come into being (gegeonen) in him was life, and the life was the light of all people.

    > NRS John 1:10 He was in the world, and the world came into being (egeneto) through him; yet the world did not know him.

    > NRS John 1:14 And the Word became flesh (egeneto) and lived among us...

    _____________________________________

    Add to this mix the fact that the Greek writers insist that monogene ought to be translated as “unique,” and not as “only-begotten” (which would be monogente). Since all things are engendered by the logos, Jesus would not be unique in that sense—but perhaps in his “sacramental” realization and actualization—imaging—of that logos in humanity; i.e., as the eikon par-excellence, the exemplar. And that is reflected in his title of ho Christos.

    This parallels what CB is saying, I think, but it could also be said in a Trinitarian framework as well (and in fact is).

    ________________________________________

    One more point, if the author of the 1st Letter of John is the same as the author of the Johannine Gospel, then there is a further identification:

    ho theos = logos = pneuma = agape.

    In both John 1:1 and 1st John 4:8, the identified words are both in the nominative case.
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    01 Apr '07 19:18
    What is the actual translation of the word "Father" in the context of the Bible (or NT because I don't think it exist in the OT).

    If you look at the greek origin here:

    http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/words.pl?book=Jhn&chapter=17&verse=1&strongs=3962&page=

    In greek it is pater, which doesn't directly means father. It means generator or originator. So when jesus say : God the father, he is actually means = God the generator (originator , creator). If I'm right, then it means Jesus all the times talk to the only God not his father.

    And also there is no expression such as : God the son.

    So the relation between Jesus and GOD could be something else other than father -son relationship.

    Does this make sense?
  4. Hmmm . . .
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    01 Apr '07 19:39
    Originally posted by ahosyney
    What is the actual translation of the word "Father" in the context of the Bible (or NT because I don't think it exist in the OT).

    If you look at the greek origin here:

    http://www.blueletterbible.org/cgi-bin/words.pl?book=Jhn&chapter=17&verse=1&strongs=3962&page=

    In greek it is pater, which doesn't directly means father. It means generator or origin ...[text shortened]... GOD could be something else other than father -son relationship.

    Does this make sense?
    It can mean any of those, I think. “Father” is in a sense a metaphor, indicating that God is both originator/creator and sustainer—it suggests an ongoing relationship. Jesus used the word Abba, which is a familiar or diminutive form of the Hebrew Ab, and means something like “Papa.”

    Part of the message is that our relationship with God can be seen as analogous to a parent-child one. That's not my view particularly, but it's there.

    A lot depends on how symbolically or literally one takes these terms—for instance, the virgin birth.

    Question: Can't the Arabic word Rabb be translated as "sustainer," rather than "lord"?
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    01 Apr '07 20:281 edit
    Originally posted by vistesd
    It can mean any of those, I think. “Father” is in a sense a metaphor, indicating that God is both originator/creator and sustainer—it suggests an ongoing relationship. Jesus used the word Abba, which is a familiar or diminutive form of the Hebrew Ab, and means something like “Papa.”

    Part of the message is that our relationship with ion: Can't the Arabic word Rabb be translated as "sustainer," rather than "lord"?
    Question: Can't the Arabic word Rabb be translated as "sustainer," rather than "lord"?

    The arabic word "Rabb" could be give different meaning, depending on the sentense it is found in, it basicly means Master, or Lord (any master or any lord). When you say "Rab Al Bayt" = Master of the House, it referes basicly to head of the house (the father for example). It could be used also to mean boss or supervisor, "Rab Al amal" = master of the work. And it is used to refere to Allah as he is the master of every thing. But in it is not a name of Allah. In Quran it is used to refere to Allah (Rabekom = your Lord) (Rabby = My Lord). But in some location it doesn't refere to GOD or Allah:

    Yusef 12:42: And he said unto him of the twain who he knew would be released : Mention me in the presence of thy lord . But Satan caused him to forget to mention it to his lord , so he ( Joseph ) stayed in prison for some years .


    Yusef 12:50: And the King said : Bring him unto me . And when the messenger came unto him , he ( Joseph ) said : Return unto thy lord and ask him what was the case of the women who cut their . hands . Lo! my lord knoweth thee guile .


    In these two veses: thy lord is the translation Rabbek and it referese to the king of Egypt.

    In the past the word "Rabb" was commonly used to refere to any master. But now it hardly used to refere to any one except Allah. So when an Arabic speaker say "Rabby" he is saying "my GOD", but you still can use it but you have to be clear.

    Edit: The bible translation into arabic used the word "Rab" to refere to Jesus, while "Allah" is used to refere to the Father. Which is very interesting to me.....
  6. Hmmm . . .
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    01 Apr '07 20:33
    Originally posted by ahosyney
    [b]Question: Can't the Arabic word Rabb be translated as "sustainer," rather than "lord"?

    The arabic word "Rabb" could be give different meaning, depending on the sentense it is found in, it basicly means Master, or Lord (any master or any lord). When you say "Rab Al Bayt" = Master of the House, it referes basicly to head of the house (the fa ...[text shortened]... lah" is used to refere to the Father. Which is very interesting to me.....[/b]
    Thank you. I stand corrected...
  7. Hmmm . . .
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    01 Apr '07 21:38
    Originally posted by epiphinehas
    Believe what you want about God's word, I will no longer offer your positions any resistance.

    All this argumentation, including mine, is of the flesh and does not glorify God. Therefore, I relinquish every argumentative strand and any claim to having won any of them. All this striving has infringed on my peace in the Lord, so this where I exit. Carry on.

    May God bless you all.

    Peace.
    -Epiphinehas
    Retreat is not always defeat. I, too, have had to take a break when I’ve lost my center, and the serenity abiding therein, as well as when I’ve needed to take my time to work through the shifting foundations of my thinking.
  8. Hmmm . . .
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    01 Apr '07 22:03
    Originally posted by Nemesio
    Ack. It was Martha's refractory period. She tells Jesus that she has 'come to believe,'
    indicating that there had been doubt, but upon further examination and reflection, has accepted.

    All who are interested in spirituality ought to go through such periods of confusion and doubt,
    followed by periods of examination, exploration and intro ...[text shortened]... be prepared to change[/i] so that our faiths grow, and we might grow in holiness.

    Nemesio
    Well, that's good news for me... 🙂
  9. Donationkirksey957
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    01 Apr '07 23:06
    Originally posted by vistesd
    Retreat is not always defeat. I, too, have had to take a break when I’ve lost my center, and the serenity abiding therein, as well as when I’ve needed to take my time to work through the shifting foundations of my thinking.
    Where's the "flesh?"
  10. Hmmm . . .
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    02 Apr '07 15:27
    Originally posted by kirksey957
    Where's the "flesh?"
    Well, Epiphenhas in another thread gave his understanding of "flesh" as everything that pertains to the nonspiritual aspects of being human: physical, intellectual, emotional...
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