20 Mar '07 14:24>2 edits
Lately, I have been reading in the history of church doctrine, especially as it developed in the East (e.g., the Greek Orthodox). Orthodox, Roman Catholics and, to some extent at least, Anglicans all look to the patristic tradition as well as the texts. This tradition goes back at least until the 2nd century. Sola scriptura—scripture alone—is a doctrine originating in the 16th century by Martin Luther.
This divide between text and tradition seems to be at least one element in differing understandings of soteriology—“salvation”—it’s nature and requirements. In the East, salvation is viewed as cure or healing (based on the root meaning of the Greek word soterias, and as a process rather than an event—in contrast to the more juridical view that developed in the West. (I am not entirely sure which view is most prominent within Roman Catholicism.)
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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sola_Scriptura--
Sola scriptura (Latin ablative, "by scripture alone" ) is the assertion that the Bible as God's written word is self-authenticating, clear (perspicuous) to the rational reader, its own interpreter ("Scripture interprets Scripture" ), and sufficient of itself to be the only source of Christian doctrine.
Sola scriptura was a foundational doctrinal principle of the Protestant Reformation held by the reformer Martin Luther and is a definitive principle of Protestants today (see Five solas)
Sola scriptura may be contrasted with Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox teaching, in which the Bible must be interpreted by church teaching, by considering the Bible in the context of Sacred Tradition
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One “proof-text” sometimes cited in support of an early oral tradition that paralleled and informed textual interpretation is the following (my bold)—
1 Corinthians 2:1 When I came to you, brothers and sisters, I did not come proclaiming the mystery/secret (mysterion) of God to you in lofty words or wisdom (sophias). 2 For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ, and him crucified. 3 And I came to you in weakness and in fear and in much trembling. 4 My speech and my proclamation were not with plausible words of wisdom, but with a demonstration of the Spirit and of power, 5 so that your faith might rest not on human wisdom but on the power of God. 6 Yet among the mature we do speak wisdom (sophian), though it is not a wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are doomed to perish. 7 But we speak God's wisdom in secret/mystery (en mysterio), that was hidden, which God decreed before the ages for our glory.
The passage continues (to give further context)— 8 None of the rulers of this age understood this; for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory. 9 But, as it is written, "What no eye has seen, nor ear heard, nor the human heart conceived, what God has prepared for those who love him"—10 these things God has revealed to us through the Spirit; for the Spirit searches everything, even the depths of God. 11 For what human being knows what is truly human except the human spirit that is within? So also no one comprehends what is truly God's except the Spirit of God. 12 Now we have received not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit that is from God, so that we may understand the gifts bestowed on us by God. 13 And we speak of these things in words not taught by human wisdom but taught by the Spirit, interpreting spiritual things to those who are spiritual. 14 Those who are unspiritual do not receive the gifts of God's Spirit, for they are foolishness to them, and they are unable to understand them because they are spiritually discerned. 15 Those who are spiritual discern all things, and they are themselves subject to no one else's scrutiny. 16 "For who has known the mind of the Lord so as to instruct him?" But we have the mind of Christ.
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So, is there a valid oral tradition, reflected in writings of the early Christians, that ought to be considered in interpreting the texts today—or not?
Does it matter that the earliest post-NT Christians read the texts differently from modern Protestants (at least)? If they did, were they guided by the Spirit, or not? Were thet "true Christians" or not (and are the Orthodox today)?
Should the NT texts themselves be seen as part of the early developing tradition, or as the “self-authenticating” word of God? Does it matter if the earliest Christians did not see them this way?
This divide between text and tradition seems to be at least one element in differing understandings of soteriology—“salvation”—it’s nature and requirements. In the East, salvation is viewed as cure or healing (based on the root meaning of the Greek word soterias, and as a process rather than an event—in contrast to the more juridical view that developed in the West. (I am not entirely sure which view is most prominent within Roman Catholicism.)
______________________________________________
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sola_Scriptura--
Sola scriptura (Latin ablative, "by scripture alone" ) is the assertion that the Bible as God's written word is self-authenticating, clear (perspicuous) to the rational reader, its own interpreter ("Scripture interprets Scripture" ), and sufficient of itself to be the only source of Christian doctrine.
Sola scriptura was a foundational doctrinal principle of the Protestant Reformation held by the reformer Martin Luther and is a definitive principle of Protestants today (see Five solas)
Sola scriptura may be contrasted with Roman Catholic and Eastern Orthodox teaching, in which the Bible must be interpreted by church teaching, by considering the Bible in the context of Sacred Tradition
________________________________
One “proof-text” sometimes cited in support of an early oral tradition that paralleled and informed textual interpretation is the following (my bold)—
1 Corinthians 2:1 When I came to you, brothers and sisters, I did not come proclaiming the mystery/secret (mysterion) of God to you in lofty words or wisdom (sophias). 2 For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ, and him crucified. 3 And I came to you in weakness and in fear and in much trembling. 4 My speech and my proclamation were not with plausible words of wisdom, but with a demonstration of the Spirit and of power, 5 so that your faith might rest not on human wisdom but on the power of God. 6 Yet among the mature we do speak wisdom (sophian), though it is not a wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are doomed to perish. 7 But we speak God's wisdom in secret/mystery (en mysterio), that was hidden, which God decreed before the ages for our glory.
The passage continues (to give further context)— 8 None of the rulers of this age understood this; for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory. 9 But, as it is written, "What no eye has seen, nor ear heard, nor the human heart conceived, what God has prepared for those who love him"—10 these things God has revealed to us through the Spirit; for the Spirit searches everything, even the depths of God. 11 For what human being knows what is truly human except the human spirit that is within? So also no one comprehends what is truly God's except the Spirit of God. 12 Now we have received not the spirit of the world, but the Spirit that is from God, so that we may understand the gifts bestowed on us by God. 13 And we speak of these things in words not taught by human wisdom but taught by the Spirit, interpreting spiritual things to those who are spiritual. 14 Those who are unspiritual do not receive the gifts of God's Spirit, for they are foolishness to them, and they are unable to understand them because they are spiritually discerned. 15 Those who are spiritual discern all things, and they are themselves subject to no one else's scrutiny. 16 "For who has known the mind of the Lord so as to instruct him?" But we have the mind of Christ.
____________________________________
So, is there a valid oral tradition, reflected in writings of the early Christians, that ought to be considered in interpreting the texts today—or not?
Does it matter that the earliest post-NT Christians read the texts differently from modern Protestants (at least)? If they did, were they guided by the Spirit, or not? Were thet "true Christians" or not (and are the Orthodox today)?
Should the NT texts themselves be seen as part of the early developing tradition, or as the “self-authenticating” word of God? Does it matter if the earliest Christians did not see them this way?