Text and Tradition

Text and Tradition

Spirituality

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Outkast

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30 Mar 07

Originally posted by epiphinehas
That's why it's so important to get the Good News out there! As a Christian, one of my responsibilities is to preach the Gospel to whoever is willing to listen, within my own 'circle of relationships' -- friends, family and strangers alike. Not everyone I witness to will believe in Jesus Christ and, frankly, that's not my problem; neither is it my prob ...[text shortened]... to the one who created it, “Why have you made me like this?” (Romans 9:14-16, 18-20).
Why is it when something comes up that flies in the face of your theology you simply say, "take it up with the Lord as it is not for me to answer"? If God does indeed show compassion to whomever He desires, then you should have no problem whatsoever with non-believers being "saved." Don't end up being bitter about that like Jonah.

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Originally posted by Bosse de Nage
It's a valid question.
Yes, and what an affirmation to the creator that his creation is so self-aware as to be able to ask such a question.

Zellulärer Automat

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Originally posted by kirksey957
Yes, and what an affirmation to the creator that his creation is so self-aware as to be able to ask such a question.
Gepetto would have wept with joy.

Naturally Right

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Originally posted by kirksey957
Yes, and what an affirmation to the creator that his creation is so self-aware as to be able to ask such a question.
Cursed, cursed creator!

Why did I live ?

- From Frankenstein

Zellulärer Automat

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Originally posted by no1marauder
Cursed, cursed creator!

Why did I live ?
To rip the heart out of your creator...

Ursulakantor

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2 edits

Originally posted by epiphinehas
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).

The word for 'word' is logos, a Hellenistic construct with a much
greater significance than 'word' (although there isn't a good single-word
translation for it). However, the translation 'and the Word was made
flesh' is inaccurate, or rather insufficient. Better capturing the words
of the author, it should read 'and the Word was enfleshed.' No
Christian could possibly deny that Jesus had the Spirit of God in Him,
but then again, no Christian would deny that the Spirit of God is in
everyone. The author here (as evinced by the other quotations I
offered above) is clearly saying that the purest of Spirit was in Jesus,
the very logos (wisdom, knowledge, conviction, &c) was in Jesus
in a way that it hasn't been with humankind before.

"Because in him doth tabernacle all the fulness of the Godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:9).

Interesting that you would quote the most damning letter to your
claim, in which, at the beginning, St Paul clearly states that Jesus is
the image/reflection of God, 'the first born of all creation.' God, by
definition, is above and beyond creation -- He is the Creator. Jesus,
explicitly, is a creation, preordained from the beginning of time,
from before all other created things (who sits at the right hand of God
[not as God], Col 3:1) to whom Christians give thanks to God through
Christ (again, not as God, Col 3:17). Of all of St Paul's letters, Colossians
is the worst for you to cite as evidence of Jesus' Divinity since
St Paul takes repeated and explicit efforts to set the two up in diachotomy.

"Christ Jesus, who, being in the form of God, thought [it] not robbery to be equal to God" (Philippians 2:5-6).

Once again, a single line ignoring the rest of St Paul's glorious hymn.
First of all, the translation of verse six is disingenous; it better reads
'...though He was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God
something to be grasped
.' Again, like logos, the concept of
form (morphe) is much bigger than a single word can express.
Obviously, it doesn't refer (at all) to the outward appearance. It refers
to the inward substance, the same thing that St John's Gospel points
to when he uses the word logos. It is exactly the same construction
(though in Hebrew) as Adam's being in God's image (Genesis 1:26-27).
And, unlike Adam, He did not grasp at becoming God, did not fall into
the temptation of sin. St Paul contrasts Adam and Jesus more than a
few times. I'm surprised that you missed this one. Again, Jesus was the
image or reflection or morphe of God (St Paul is clear), not
God Himself. But continuing on, to give this verse greater clarity through
context. Jesus, firstborn of all creation, came down and was
enfleshed, died on the cross (next two verses), then 'Because of this
God greatly exalted him......and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ
is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. (verses 9, 11).

Once again Jesus is placed in contrast -- juxtaposition even -- with
God. God exalted Jesus, not 'Himself.' God gets the glory through
the Jesus, His Son, His creation, His mediator for humankind (cf. I Tim
2:5-6).

"Because of this, then, were the Jews seeking the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the sabbath, but he also called God his own Father, making himself equal to God" (John 5:18).

Jesus explicitly tells all of His followers to call His Father in heaven as
'Father.' Does that make His followers equal to God? No, of course not. You have forgotten who made this claim: the Jews. Well, so what
of the Jews said 'Jesus said He was equal to God;' the Jews lied about
what Jesus said and did all the time. You will notice, of course, that
the Jews never claimed that Jesus said 'He was God,' for even that
would be outlandish for even the lying Pharisee sects who were challenged
by Jesus' authority, which by their own reactions, they regarded as remarkable. Consider that Jesus also said, 'If God were your Father, you would
love me, for I came from God and am here; I did not come on my own
but he sent me.' (St John 8:42) This hardly bespeaks of equality.
So, the Jews out for Jesus' death made a false claim while records of
Jesus' words testifies to the opposite. Hardly another strong claim for
Jesus' Divinity.

"He (God) Saith . . . unto the Son, "Thy throne, O God, [is] to the age of the age; a scepter of righteousness [is] the scepter of thy reign; thou didst love righteousness, and didst hate lawlessness; because of this did He anoint thee -- God, thy God -- with oil of gladness above thy partners;' and, `Thou, at the beginning, Lord, the earth didst found, and a work of thy hands are the heavens; these shall perish, and Thou dost remain, and all, as a garment, shall become old, and as a mantle Thou shall roll them together, and they shall be changed, and Thou art the same, and Thy years shall not fail.' And unto which of the messengers said He ever, `Sit at My right hand, till I may make thine enemies thy footstool?' (Hebrews 1:6, 8-13).

You forgot part of verse six, wherein it refers to Jesus (again) as the
'first-born of the world.' Again, a creation of God's, not God Himself. Verse eight even says 'God, your God,' the 'your' referring to
Jesus Himself! Jesus's God annnointed Jesus with the oil of gladness
above His companions
!!!! How much more clear could it be?
How about 2:9 -- ...we do see Jesus 'crowned with glory and honor' because
he suffered death, he who 'for a little while' was made 'lower than the
angels,' that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
Again, God guides and directs the course that Jesus takes. Crystal clear
writing all of which points to God as distinct from Jesus, God's
supreme servant.

Just like the JW's, you would relegate Jesus to mere angel, a messenger, of God, though the author of Hebrews clearly points out here that He is no mere angel, but God Himself? The scriptural evidence is clear, whether your 'church fathers' see it or not.

You have started with a credal position and are reading that into a
text which clearly points to something else. Once again, it's totally
fine with me that you take a credal position, but don't claim some BS
like you are from a sola scriptura camp; you're not. The authors
of the Bible are unequivocal in their separation of Jesus from God, even
in words they attribute to Jesus Himself.

Do you want me to quote scriptures concerning the Holy Spirit, too? Are we going to get into a dispute over the Triune nature of God now?

Snore. Perhaps you missed it before: I don't care whether you believe
God has a triune nature or not. However, that dogma is post-Biblical;
it is the product of a century of dispute, the winners of which established
Orthodoxy. However, the idea that the Trinity -- Three Persons, One God --
is a transparent Biblical teaching is absurd.

I don't dispute your scripture references which piont to Christ as separate from the Father (Father and Son), for their is a clear difference between the two.

The authors are absolutely crystal clear -- God is distinct from Jesus
countless times. If God is Father and God is Son, then God cannot be
distinct from Son. Indeed, there are some passages that contrast
Father and Son, but there are many more which contrast God and
Son. And, you never, ever, ever, ever see 'God the Son' anywhere
in Scripture. If it were such an obvious, transparent, and central teaching
of the NT authors, why is it so glaringly absent?

...I am not denying the claims of any scripture, it is you who are denying the claims of scripture, in that you explain away all references to Christ' divinity to fit your own ends.

You are imposing claims upon Scriptures because you have started
with a conclusion and manipulated the unequivocal texts to suit that
conclusion. Once again: I don't care one iota (jot or tittle) that you
think Jesus is God. Good for you, you are a traditionalist, resting on
centuries of dogmatic formation. Bravo, you have my admiration and
respect. You could be Greek Orthodox for all I care. I don't have an
end here except that you be honest about that claim. The NT
authors say what they say, repeatedly placing Jesus in direct contrast
with God, to the point of even having Jesus saying 'God is good, not me.'

Do you think the actual nature of God is just going to make complete semantic sense to you? Ridiculous.

I make no claims to know the 'actual' or even 'fractional' nature of God.
I am not that pretentious. I do know what the NT authors say, and they
are unanimous. Jesus was very important, the enfleshed logos of
God -- of God, not God Himself.

Nemesio

Illinois

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Originally posted by Bosse de Nage
It's a valid question.
Actually, it's not. Who says to the Lord, "Lord, you have made me too hard-hearted to surrender to your will. You are an unjust God because I cannot choose to receive your salvation through Christ Jesus. Why did you make me this way?" That's a ridiculous cop-out to blame the creator for our own choices. God hardens our hearts against Him when we are unwilling to give up our own sinful ways and sacrifice everything to follow Him. If an unbeliever were honest with himself, he or she would see clearly that the only unrighteousness is in their own refusal to submit to God. After a sinner rebels long-enough his or her heart becomes hardened, and the possibility of surrender lessens considerably, making it a matter of God's compassion whether or not that person might receive His grace. To blame the Lord for hardening our hearts because of sin is thoroughly ridiculous.

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Originally posted by kirksey957
Why is it when something comes up that flies in the face of your theology you simply say, "take it up with the Lord as it is not for me to answer"? If God does indeed show compassion to whomever He desires, then you should have no problem whatsoever with non-believers being "saved." Don't end up being bitter about that like Jonah.
I have no problem at all with non-believers getting saved; I wish every non-believer might receive God's grace through Christ and be saved. Of course, that's not what you're insinuating. You're insinuating that non-believers might be saved without ever hearing of Christ. I say, no, because His compassion is received through faith in Christ, not through faith in anyone else and not through faith in nothing. But the reason I say, 'take it up with the Lord,' is because my knowledge of God through the bible is not exhaustive -- how do I know what God is ultimately capable of outside of His revealed will that you would depend on me for an answer to those tough questions. As for the written word itself, I see no indication that anyone can receive the Lord's justification without believing in Jesus Christ, and outside of witnessing to everyone willing to listen to the Lord's message, it's really not my problem what happens to them anyway. I think the real issue here, which we all deal with, is coming to terms with the reality of the world as it is, and the finality of God's judgment regarding it. Our sensitive human nature finds little comfort in the harshness of it all. But we are not God and it is not our responsibility. His ways are not our ways.

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Originally posted by Nemesio
Originally posted by epiphinehas
[b]"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).


The word for 'word' is logos, a Hellenistic construct with a much
greater significance than 'word' (although there isn't a good single-word
translation for it). However, the translation 'and the Word was ma ...[text shortened]... .

Nemesio[/b]
Here is another interesting verse...

1 Cor 15:28
28 Now when all things are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subject to Him who put all things under Him, that God may be all in all.
(NKJ)

Illinois

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Originally posted by Nemesio
Originally posted by epiphinehas
[b]"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God" (John 1:1).


The word for 'word' is logos, a Hellenistic construct with a much
greater significance than 'word' (although there isn't a good single-word
translation for it). However, the translation 'and the Word was ma ...[text shortened]... .

Nemesio[/b]
I'll respond in kind later on, but until then, consider these two passages:

"And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you" (Exodus 3:14).

"Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58).

___________________________________________________________________

I have major beef with your take on John 1:1, where you say...

No Christian could possibly deny that Jesus had the Spirit of God in Him, but then again, no Christian would deny that the Spirit of God is in
everyone.


Everyone? That is not scriptural. Only those who believe in Jesus Christ receive the Holy Spirit. Wrong again.

Ursulakantor

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31 Mar 07
1 edit

Originally posted by epiphinehas
Everyone? That is not scriptural. Only those who believe in Jesus Christ receive the Holy Spirit. Wrong again.
I was unintentionally unclear. By 'the Spirit of God,' I was referring more
to the sort of universal spirituality that are in all of His creation, not
the Holy Spirit in a concrete (pentecostal) sense. Some aspect of God
is in all people who show love, so I used the word 'spirit' in that sense.
(That is, in the Johannine sense, cf. I John 4:7-21.)

Sorry for the confusion.

Nemesio

Ursulakantor

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Originally posted by checkbaiter
1 Cor 15:28
28 Now when all things are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subject to Him who put all things under Him, that God may be all in all.
(NKJ)
I'm not sure what you are saying. This verse explicitly states that
Christ Jesus will submit to God once He has accomplished (mediated)
all that is to be accomplished. This only serves to reinforce my
observation that the NT writers viewed Jesus is a distinct entity from God.

Nemesio

Ursulakantor

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Originally posted by epiphinehas
Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58).
So what? The Gospel of Saint John uses the turn of phrase 'I am' some
several dozen times -- I am the bread of life, I am the vine, I am the
living water. Jesus says earlier (as I pointed out) that He came from
God (not was God, you'll notice), that He did not come of His own
volition but was sent by God. St Paul clearly believes that Jesus
was the first born of creation, so that would necessarily mean that He
existed before Abraham. If He is the enfleshed logos of God,
then there is nothing contradictory about this statement and that He
is not a co-equal, consubstantial member of the Trinity.

Another reading is, before Abraham was, God was, and I have known
God since the beginning of time, which would make the most sense
in the context of the verses I mentioned before (42 ff).

Nemesio

Ursulakantor

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Originally posted by epiphinehas
You're insinuating that non-believers might be saved without ever hearing of Christ. I say, no, because His compassion is received through faith in Christ, not through faith in anyone else and not through faith in nothing.
So, you genuinely believe that God damns to eternal Hell an aboriginal
South American who has never had any contact with Christianity -- was
born, was raised, and died unintentionally ignorant of Jesus Christ and
God?

A yes or no will suffice (I don't need a justification or citations from
Scriptures).

Nemesio

Illinois

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1 edit

Originally posted by Nemesio
So what? The Gospel of Saint John uses the turn of phrase 'I am' some
several dozen times -- I am the bread of life, I am the vine, I am the
living water. Jesus says earlier (as I pointed out) that He came from
God (not was God, you'll notice), that He did not come of His own
volition but was sent by God. St Paul clearly believes that Jesus
...[text shortened]... uld make the most sense
in the context of the verses I mentioned before (42 ff).

Nemesio
St Paul clearly believes that Jesus was the first born of creation.

The Jehovah's Witnesses and Col. 1:15

(Source = carm.org)

"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All [other] things have been created through him and for him. Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exists."

(Col. 1:15-17, for context. The New World Translation - Emphasis added. Note the NWT’s addition of “other” into the text four times. This is discussed here.)

The Jehovah's Witnesses interpret the word "firstborn" here to mean "first created" because it is consistent with their theological presupposition that Jesus is a created thing. Of course, Jesus, the word become flesh (John 1:1,14) is not a created thing. But that hasn't stopped the Watchtower organization from claiming He is. Nevertheless, there is a Greek word for "first created" and it was in use at the time of Paul's writing to the Colossians. He did not use it here. The Greek for "firstborn" is proto with tikto which would give us "firstborn" and that is what we find here in Colossians 1:15. The Greek for "first created" would be proto with ktizo and it is not used here.
Second, the biblical use of the word "firstborn" is most interesting. It can mean the first born child in a family (Luke 2:7), but it can also mean "pre-eminence." In Psalm 89:20, 27 it says, "I have found David My servant; with My holy oil I have anointed him...I also shall make him My first-born" (NASB). As you can see, David, who was the last one born in his family was called the firstborn by God. This is a title of preeminence.
Third, firstborn is also a title that is transferable:

*

Gen. 41:51-52, "And Joseph called the name of the first-born Manasseh: For, said he, God hath made me forget all my toil, and all my father’s house. And the name of the second called he Ephraim: For God hath made me fruitful in the land of my affliction" (NASB)
*

Jer. 31:9, "...for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is My firstborn (NASB)."

Scripture best interprets scripture. Firstborn does not require a meaning of first created as the Jehovah's Witnesses say it means here. "Firstborn" can mean the first born person in a family and it can also be a title of preeminence which is transferable. That is obvious since Jesus is God in flesh (John 1:1,14) and is also the first born son of Mary. In addition, He is the pre-eminent one in all things. The Jehovah's Witnesses should consider this when they examine Col. 1:15. They should also abandon the Watchtower which guides them in their thinking and believing.