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The Spirit was not yet

The Spirit was not yet

Spirituality

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Originally posted by checkbaiter
He is the same God in the Old testament as the NT. This is an old question.
here is an excerpt from the book "Don't blame God".
[quote]The basic reason why God did not reveal the Devil to people in Old Testament times is that they were unprepared to deal with such a powerful spiritual being. They were not spiritually equipped to combat an invisible ene ...[text shortened]... ruthortradition.com/articles/why-is-there-basically-no-mention-of-the-devil-in-the-old-testament
Dont know where you get this stuff from but the Bible says pretty clearly that the Devil and Satan is one and the same.

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Originally posted by Rajk999
Dont know where you get this stuff from but the Bible says pretty clearly that the Devil and Satan is one and the same.
Do you think I don't know that?

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Originally posted by checkbaiter
Do you think I don't know that?
Apparently not

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Originally posted by checkbaiter
Psalm 110:1, is quoted two times in the New Testament in
association with the Lord Jesus Christ. The first time it is quoted it is in Matthew 22:41-45:
“While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, 42 saying, “What do you think
about the Christ? Whose Son is He?” They said to Him, “The Son of David.” 43 He said to them,
“How then doe ...[text shortened]... . He is the Father of “Adoni” the son of David, the Man, the Lord Jesus
Christ.
author unknown
But Jesus Christ is
not God.


The Word was God. (John 1:1)
The Word became flesh. (John 1:14)

Jesus Christ is the complete God and the perfect man.

Either checkbaiter doesn't believe that " the Word was God" or he believes that when " the Word became flesh" the Word was no longer God.

And if checkbaiter says that the Word was "a god" that means that checkbaiter doesn't believe that " the Word was God."

I will be working my way back to the OP of this thread.

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Originally posted by checkbaiter
The word "theos" God or god, does not have the definite article and should be translated “a god” or “divine.” Since the Jews would never believe a man could be "Yahweh", and since it was common in the Aramaic and Hebrew to call an important man “god,” they did not accuse him of being God, but a god.
You can also cite John 20:28 and you will get the same answer.


This interpretation is not likely.

They complained when Jesus forgave sins not because only "a god" can forgive sins. But only One, God can forgive sins.

" And Jesus said, seeing their faith, Child, your sins are forgiven. But some of the scribes were sitting there and reasoning in their hearts,

Why is this man speaking this way? He is blaspheming!

Who can forgive sins except One, God ?" (Mark 2:5-7)


So they persecuted Him not for making Himself "a god" but for making Himself "One, God".

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Originally posted by sonship
[quote] The word "theos" God or god, does not have the definite article and should be translated “a god” or “divine.” Since the Jews would never believe a man could be "Yahweh", and since it was common in the Aramaic and Hebrew to call an important man “god,” they did not accuse him of being God, but a god.
You can also cite John 20:28 and you will get the ...[text shortened]...
So they persecuted Him not for making Himself "a god" but for making Himself [b]"One, God"
.[/b]
That's your defense? Never mind what scripture says?
You hold the English translation higher than the Greek?
Then we are at an impasse.

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Originally posted by sonship
But Jesus Christ is
not God.


The Word was God. [b](John 1:1)

The Word became flesh. (John 1:14)

Jesus Christ is the complete God and the perfect man.

Either checkbaiter doesn't believe that " the Word was God" or he believes that when " the Word became flesh" the Word was no longer God.
...[text shortened]... eve that " the Word was God."

I will be working my way back to the OP of this thread.[/b]
Checkbaiter believes the logo or Gods plan became flesh.

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-Removed-
Yes, and MY point is that you are not being especially forthcoming with your exact belief on the concept. I'm saying that you DO believe in a Trinity, even while you claim not to believe it.

And even now you dance away from this point.

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Originally posted by Rajk999
Been more or less saying this about him for about 5 years now. This mostly comes from his elevating the teachings of men higher than the teachings of Christ. That kind of thing is bound for failure.
And people like you elevate the words of the Bible (in effect worshipping the Bible as God) above Jesus' actual saving grace. Those who are saved DO have a relationship with Jesus, through the Holy Spirit, but you ignore this in your zeal to call down His warnings to sinners, and characterizing all Christians as failing Jesus and displeasing God (and then going so far as to claim that our Christian faith is our business alone to keep from giving us your own testimony). All because you value the words in a book over the actual redeeming sacrifice of Jesus.

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-Removed-
I cannot speak for him, but I daresay he ignores this because he does not disagree with you.

I do not see how you can be so dense as this, especially since as I said, it's clear to me that you do have a concept of Trinity that does make sense to you.

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-Removed-
I am going to start a thread on the shema.

This thread is dedicated primarily to John 7:39.

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Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
I struggle with this. If God is unchanging and merciful, how do you account for the God in the OT who often acts without mercy?
Precisely against whom does He act "without mercy"?

I think the answer to that holds the answer to your question.