1. Halifax, NS
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    13 Dec '05 05:16
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    Actually, Matthew 1:25 of the NLV says "she remained a virgin until her son was born."

    This is logically different than the version you gave, which states, "But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son."

    I could construct various scenarios in which one holds but not the other.

    I imagine my source was referring to the original Greek text regarding Luke's unique account of virgin birth. Can anybody comment on that?
    Be careful. The NLV is a paraphrase, not a translation. It's just trying to tell you what the paraphrasers think the author meant. It's not trying to necessarily translate literally.

    So you're really reading what the NLV paraphrasers think Matthew meant when he said Joseph didn't have any union with Mary.
  2. Unknown Territories
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    13 Dec '05 05:16
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    Actually, Matthew 1:25 of the NLV says "she remained a virgin until her son was born."

    This is logically different than the version you gave, which states, "But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son."

    I could construct various scenarios in which one holds but not the other.

    I imagine my source was referring to the original Greek text regarding Luke's unique account of virgin birth. Can anybody comment on that?
    Comment on your imagination? The Greek? Only one account? What are you looking for, exactly?
  3. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    13 Dec '05 05:191 edit
    Originally posted by joelek
    It's just trying to tell you what the paraphrasers think the author meant. It's not trying to necessarily translate literally.

    So you're really reading what the NLV paraphrasers think Matthew meant when he said Joseph didn't have any union with Mary.
    This is what all translations are. A literal translation would be incomprehensible in the target language and in most cases impossible to achieve.
  4. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    13 Dec '05 05:201 edit
    Originally posted by FreakyKBH
    Comment on your imagination? The Greek? Only one account? What are you looking for, exactly?
    I want to know if it is the case that

    1) None of the original texts of Matthew, Mark and John describe Mary as a virgin at the time of conception, and

    2) The original text of Luke does describe Mary as a virgin at the time of conception.
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    13 Dec '05 05:21
    what the point of this thread.
  6. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    13 Dec '05 05:23
    Originally posted by trevor33
    what the point of this thread.
    To determine whether my source's claim is true, and whether his explanation has any merit.
  7. Standard memberno1marauder
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    13 Dec '05 05:24
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    I want to know if it is the case that

    1) None of the original texts of Mattheew, Mark and John describe Mary as a virgin at the time of conception, and

    2) The original text of Luke does describe Mary as a virgin at the time of conception.
    I'm quite sure there aren't ANY "original texts" of any of the Gospels. Matthew pretty clearly states that Joseph hadn't had sex with Mary until after Jesus was born. Are you suggesting somebody else might have?
  8. Unknown Territories
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    13 Dec '05 05:24
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    I want to know if it is the case that

    1) None of the original texts of Matthew, Mark and John describe Mary as a virgin at the time of conception, and

    2) The original text of Luke does describe Mary as a virgin at the time of conception.
    Only Mark jumps into the action, post birth. Matthew, Luke and John all describe Mary as a virgin.
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    13 Dec '05 05:26
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    To determine whether my source's claim is true, and whether his explanation has any merit.
    what is your source
  10. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    13 Dec '05 05:271 edit
    Originally posted by no1marauder
    Are you suggesting somebody else might have?
    For this thread, I am concerned only with the texts themselves, not with their factuality.
  11. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    13 Dec '05 05:301 edit
    Originally posted by trevor33
    what is your source
    An interview with Joseph Campbell, an expert in mythology and comparative religion, regarding thematic occurrences of female goddesses.
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    13 Dec '05 05:32
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    An interview with Joseph Campbell, an expert in mythology and comparative religion, regarding thematic occurrences of female goddesses.
    Do you know the link to it, i would like to read it.
  13. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    13 Dec '05 05:321 edit
    Originally posted by FreakyKBH
    Only Mark jumps into the action, post birth.
    So joelek is wrong when he claims that John does not give an account of the birth?
  14. Standard memberDoctorScribbles
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    13 Dec '05 05:34
    I did not read it. It was part of a DVD production entitled Joseph Campbell and the Power of Myth.

    http://www.amazon.com/gp/product/B00005MEVQ/102-5850624-9261718?v=glance&n=130
  15. Standard memberno1marauder
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    13 Dec '05 05:35
    Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
    For this thread, I am concerned only with the texts themselves, not with their factuality.
    Well, I would say Luke says she was a virgin explicitly and Matthew strongly suggests it. I can't find any mention in John of a virgin birth and Mark doesn't address his birth at all.
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