Originally posted by twhiteheadInteresting. Thanks for the input. It's amazing what can be learned by simply asking questions.
My father was a priest and had studied some theology. He said that the oldest known texts used a word meaning 'young woman' though it could be interpreted differently depending on context (just as maiden can also mean virgin or young woman).
He also thought that this part of Lukes account was not based on what he had heard about Jesus but rather what w ...[text shortened]... of the major theological differences between the Roman Catholic Church and The Anglican Church.
Originally posted by no1marauderIf you wish to get complex, we can begin discussing zygotes, mitosis and the like.
Fascinating; so Jesus wasn't born from Mary's ova? He was just popped in her like a cake in an Easy Bake oven?
Suffice to say, the cellular structure of the humanity of Christ was not in anyway, shape or form, provided by man.
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesThis is kind of complicated.
Well, if he didn't inherit any from his earthly mother, why do you insist that he would have inherited some from an earthly father? When you said the "strain of man," were you referring strictly to males?
There is a verse somewhere in Scripture (I am too lazy to look it up)
that sins of the father are passed on to the third and the fourth generation.
So, in a way, yes, the stain of the male is passed on.
But, that doesn't preclude that the woman doesn't pass on sin. That is,
Mary's father (given the name Joachim by tradition) sinned and Jesus was
by all accounts Mary's son, so it entails that Joachim's sin was passed onto
Mary and then to Jesus according to Jewish tradition.
This is why the dogma of the Immaculate Conception arose. Since Jesus
was supposed to have been sinless, He had to be sinless from the Jewish
perspective. So, the RCC teaches (I don't know about the Eastern Church,
actually.....) that Mary was born without sin by means of intervention
and, too, lived a sinless life. That way, none of her sin (for she lacked it both
in action and in 'genetics'😉 was passed on to Jesus.
Nemesio
Originally posted by FreakyKBHO
Suffice to say, the cellular structure of the humanity of Christ was not in anyway, shape or form, provided by man.
M
G!
You are so full of crap!
You're seriously saying that Jesus didn't have any of Mary's genes?!
O
M
G!
What's your other-worldly Scriptural support for this absurd claim?
Nemesio
Originally posted by NemesioDon't we have a stack of turtles here?
This is why the dogma of the Immaculate Conception arose. Since Jesus
was supposed to have been sinless, He had to be sinless from the Jewish
perspective. So, the RCC teaches (I don't know about the Eastern Church,
actually.....) that [b]Mary was born without sin by means of intervention
and, too, lived a sinless life. That way, none of her sin (for she lacked it both
in action and in 'genetics'😉 was passed on to Jesus.
Nemesio[/b]
If Jesus' sinlessness required his mother Mary to be sinless, doesn't Mary's sinlessness require her mother to be sinless?
On the other hand, if Mary's sinlessness happened instead by intervention, couldn't Jesus's sinlessness have happend by the same intervention, while Mary could be sinful?
Can the proposed intervention happen only on females?