Originally posted by ngeisler88
Heres my answer to Acts 2:38 and Mark 16:16 -
"Problem: Peter seems to be saying that those who responded hat to repent and be baptized before they could receive the Holy Spirit. But this is contrary to the teaching of Paul that baptism is not part of the Gospel (I Cor. 1:17) and that we are saved by faith alone (Rom. 4:4 and Eph. 2:8-9).
Solution: ...[text shortened]... a condition of salvation."
Thank you for your time xpoforens.
The word "for" (eis) is used hundreds of times in the New Testament, always with forward looking.
Please notice this passage...
Matthew 26:28 "For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins."
The word "eis" is used, with the same meaning as in Acts 2:38.
The following link has an article that deals with this subject:
Regarding Acts 2:41, those who "gladly received the word" were baptized, why? Because they believed (Mark 16:16).
Regarding Acts 2:44 ("all who believed"
, one cannot remove a verse out of its context. Its close context refers to the ones that believed and were baptized, so, the ones that believed, were added to the Church, by baptism.
If a person takes a verse of the Bible independently of its context, that person can have the Bible as saying strange things, as the following:
I Corinthians 15:18 "Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished."
Context is very important.
In Acts 10:47, Luke (the writer) is describing the conversion of Cornelius and his household, the first gentiles to be converted.
It describes a peculiar and unique situation in which God bestowed the Holy Spirit, so that the apostles could see that the gentiles could be Christians as well. The apostles were skeptics regarding this issue, so they received a evidence that is was more than correct to baptize these gentiles.
If you read the whole book of Acts, you'll see that this is a unique situation, with the purpose mentioned above.
Remember, Acts 2:38 mentions that baptism is for one to receive the gift of the Holy Spirit, not before, but after (baptism).
I've already made a comment on I Cor. 1:17, but regarding Romans 1:16, naturally, I totally agree.
However, look at this passage:
II Thessalonians 1:7 "And to you who are troubled rest with us, when the Lord Jesus shall be revealed from heaven with his mighty angels,
8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:"
The gospel needs to be obeyed, and baptism is one of its commandments.
Jesus referred to baptism as rigteousness, not as a work of rightousness (Matt. 3:15).
Titus 3:5 "Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;"
Paul in his letter to Titus is saying that we are saved by God's grace/mercy, not by works. Sure, if it wasn't by Christ's sacrifice, baptism would have no meaning. However, notice the statement in the same verse, "by the washing of regeneration"; don't you think "by the washing of regeneration" means baptism?
The gospel of John is one of four gospels, and one in many New Testament books; should we discharge what the other books have to say about any issue, and in this case, about salvation?
The gospels complement each other, the same way as the epistles and Revelation complement the gospels.
You stated the following:
But nowhere does it say, "He who is not baptized will be condemned" (cf. Mark 16:16). Yet Jesus said emphatically that "he who does not believe is condemned already" (John 3:18). So neither Peter nor the rest of Scripture makes baptism a condition of salvation."
I think we are both logical guys, otherwise we would not be playing chess; as well, I'm a computer programmer, used to use logic every day.
If Jesus said "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved", do you think he would as well need to say "He who is not baptized will be condemned"?
I think He only needed to say "but he that believeth not shall be damned."
Why? Because if one doesn't believe, why would one want to be baptized?
Upon believing, one will be willing to obey and take the next steps. If one doesn't believe, he/she won't even consider another step.
Consider the following sentence:
If I have a job and I'm punctual, I'll be promoted; if I don't have a job, I'll be in misery.
See the analogy? In this context, I can only "be punctual" if I have a job; if I don't have a job, the second part of the sentence doesn't even need to mention "punctuality".
It is the same with believing and being baptized.
We should understand what "He that believeth AND is baptized shall be saved" means.
Remember, it is an AND, not an OR.