who wrote the bible..?

...god or people...?

Originally posted by eatmybishop
...god or people...?

People wrote the Bible based on their lived experiences and interpretations of those experiences, for specific audiences. It's possible that they first prayed for the Holy Spirit's guidance in writing. It's possible that they didn't.

Edit: Are there balloons and confetti and stuff if you're the hundredth person to start this thread?

Originally posted by eatmybishop
...god or people...?

God's people. 😀

Originally posted by whodey
God's people. 😀

Which part did you write?

Originally posted by darvlay
Which part did you write?

Its a work in progress you know. 😛

Originally posted by whodey
Its a work in progress you know. 😛

could i add to it?

Originally posted by whodey
Its a work in progress you know. 😛

It was, until 325.

2 Tim 3:16-17
16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness,
17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.
(NKJ)

2 Pet 1:20-21
20 knowing this first, that no prophecy of Scripture is of any private interpretation,
21 for prophecy never came by the will of man, but holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit.
(NKJ)

Gal 1:11-12
11 But I make known to you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached by me is not according to man.
12 For I neither received it from man, nor was I taught it, but it came through the revelation of Jesus Christ.
(NKJ)

Originally posted by checkbaiter
2 Pet 1:20-21
20 knowing this first, that no prophecy of Scripture is of any private interpretation,
21 for prophecy never came by the will of man, but holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit.
(NKJ)

In this particular scripture we see prophecy being discussed. I would agree. After all, either prophecy is given for a particular event or events or it is not really prophecy. However, what of the rest of the inspired word? Is all of it prophetic? Is there no element of interpretation in all of the Bible that is not prophetic?

Originally posted by eatmybishop
...god or people...?

It's God's word, so that means he wrote it. Figuratively speaking, but literally true.

Originally posted by josephw
It's God's word, so that means he wrote it. Figuratively speaking, but literally true.

Do you realy believe that GOD wrote it?

Originally posted by ahosyney
Do you realy believe that GOD wrote it?

Do you think I'm naive? The words in the bible are there because God wanted them there. Every single word, jot and tittle.

Originally posted by josephw
Do you think I'm naive? The words in the bible are there because God wanted them there. Every single word, jot and tittle.

So when Paul says

(king James Version)(Galatians)(Gal-5-2)(Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing.)

You still believe that GOD who wrote this specific verse.

Originally posted by whodey
In this particular scripture we see prophecy being discussed. I would agree. After all, either prophecy is given for a particular event or events or it is not really prophecy. However, what of the rest of the inspired word? Is all of it prophetic? Is there no element of interpretation in all of the Bible that is not prophetic?

All scripture is "God breathed", 2 Timothy 3:16. That is, the original, of which we only have copies. The copies are not perfect like the originals, but by "rightly dividing" the scriptures we have, we can get back to the original or at least close to it. I am far from being an expert, but my guess is that it is over 90% accurate as it stands.


2 Tim 2:15
15 Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
(NKJ)

2 Tim 3:16-17
16 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness,
17 that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work.
(NKJ)

The original Hebrew and/or Aramaic scrolls/text had no punctuation, thus had to be rightly divided. In the KJV, words in italics show that these words were added by the translator. After careful study you will find that even some words not in italics are added to promote a theology, or whatever the translator was trying to do.
A good example of rightly dividing is found here...

John 7:53-8:1
53 And everyone went to his own house.

CHAPTER 8

1 But Jesus went to the Mount of Olives.
(NKJ)

These two verses should have been in the same sentence, but for some reason it was split.

Originally posted by checkbaiter
All scripture is "God breathed", 2 Timothy 3:16. That is, the original, of which we only have copies. The copies are not perfect like the originals, but by "rightly dividing" the scriptures we have, we can get back to the original or at least close to it. I am far from being an expert, but my guess is that it is over 90% accurate as it stands.


2 Ti ...[text shortened]...

These two verses should have been in the same sentence, but for some reason it was split.

But since the only scripture in existence at that time was the Old Testament, he is saying that the OT is inspired by God, etc.