-Removed-I gave reasoning you did not accept what I said neither did you address the points I brought up, it was lumped together and dismissed out of hand.
Neither have you given cause on how you accept some parts and reject others. I can see how one might out of hand accept or deny the whole. You are just all over the place with no reason for anything other than your personal opinion for any of it being good or bad.
So for you to question anyone without clarification on how you do it your opinion is worse than someone who rejects the whole in my opinion.
-Removed-It is what it is, and it's been that for centuries, long before I was here. You are the one that only takes some books in it as good and some as bad. You take some books as good and only accept some verses in them and reject others out of hand. There is nothing about how you view scriptures that is consistent, and your rationale has nothing to do demonstrable scriptural evidence, only your moral compass; you look at the Bible decide what parts you like and accept those, which means what is there when you are done with it, is you.
Why does everything which is written in the Bible have be taken as being absolute truth, morally right, totally accurate etc?
This is a serious honest question.
Doubts are allowed.
You are not suggersting, I hope, that from the fgirst second one decides he wants to know God the Bible speaks of doubts are forbidden about anything in the sixty six books of the Bible.
I believe in honesty in prayer. And if one cannot believe something he should pour out his heart before the loving Father about it.
Doesn't the book fo Psalms or the book of Job portray men coming to God saying "God, what about THIS ? "
I don't see a demand that a believer cannot have doubt or something not understood. Walking with the enlightement that we have, I think, important.
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Now you said you had an honest question.
Now I have an honest one for you.
Do you think that it is POSSIBLE that the ONE God could say both of these things.
King James Bible - Psalm 103:13
Like as a father pitieth his children, so the LORD pitieth them that fear him.
King James Bible - Luke 12:5
But I will forewarn you whom ye shall fear: Fear him, which after he hath killed hath power to cast into hell; yea, I say unto you, Fear him.
Do you think that the same God could have spoken both things?
Or do you think the two sayings are mutually inclusive - if He said one then He could not have possibly said the other?
