@AThousandYoung saidThere was no such thing as Palestinians as a group of people in the time of the Bible. It was only in the 1960s did the term Palestinians come about to refer to the Arabs living in the land of Palestine. All people living in that land were referred to Palestinians since the late 1800s.
No, but Palestinians were living there
@Rajk999 saidThey just pronounced it differently. Languages back then didn’t have vowels. In addition F and P were considered the same letter which is why they use Ph for the F sound.*
There was no such thing as Palestinians as a group of people in the time of the Bible. It was only in the 1960s did the term Palestinians come about to refer to the Arabs living in the land of Palestine. All people living in that land were referred to Palestinians since the late 1800s.
Palestine is Philistine. Same thing.
EDIT You see the same phenomenon with Philipinos aka Filipinos aka Pilipinos.
@Rajk999 saidYes and the Southern slave owners in the USA often referred to the Biblical “fact” that Blacks were cursed descendants of Ham and therefore prophecied to be slaves to other races.
Where did I say anything about 'justifying'? Try to be careful with your words, otherwise you will just look ike another delusional atheist. If I say that the bible makes these prophecies which are coming to pass. This is a sstatement of fact. In no way am I implying or claiming that the Jews are justified in what they do.
You are fooling nobody.
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@AThousandYoung saidOMG slave owners in the 1800's...let's talk abot that.
Yes and the Southern slave owners in the USA often referred to the Biblical “fact” that Blacks were cursed descendants of Ham and therefore prophecied to be slaves to other races.
You are fooling nobody.
Now go back a thousand years to the Crusades.
Keep it current you self-loathing Anglo.
And ignore all the s, h,it the other races have done.
@AThousandYoung saidRegardless, Palestine was a piece of land, in the Levant area. It is only recently did the practice of referring to Arabs as Palestinians come about.
They just pronounced it differently. Languages back then didn’t have vowels. In addition F and P were considered the same letter which is why they use Ph for the F sound.*
Palestine is Philistine. Same thing.
EDIT You see the same phenomenon with Philipinos aka Filipinos aka Pilipinos.
@Cliff-Mashburn saidIf you want to keep it current why are you talking about Jews 5000 years ago?
OMG slave owners in the 1800's...let's talk abot that.
Now go back a thousand years to the Crusades.
Keep it current you self-loathing Anglo.
And ignore all the s, h,it the other races have done.
@AThousandYoung saidWhat does that have to do with me?
Yes and the Southern slave owners in the USA often referred to the Biblical “fact” that Blacks were cursed descendants of Ham and therefore prophecied to be slaves to other races.
You are fooling nobody.
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- 1139
@AThousandYoung saidYou don't see the difference between the two arguments?
If you want to keep it current why are you talking about Jews 5000 years ago?
You really are stupid.
@Rajk999 saidIt’s only recently that white people were referred to as Jews as well.
Regardless, Palestine was a piece of land, in the Levant area. It is only recently did the practice of referring to Arabs as Palestinians come about.
The natural mixing of cultures is not justification for denying people their heritage.
@AThousandYoung saidLol .. what a moron you are.
You, like those slave owners, are hiding behind Biblical prophecy to avoid responsibility for the immoral acts you openly advocate for.
@spruce112358 saidI dont know how you people do that kind of thing... butt licking. I bet you never see me do that. In any case, why not explain how ATY is kidding any assess.
Wow! @AThousandYoung is really kicking your a$$es in this debate! 😆