Different to, than, or from?

@ghost-of-a-duke said
Yes sir, yes it would.

Says the Englishman...Thankfully not all English men are like you! 😛 😉

-VR

@ghost-of-a-duke said
Yes sir, yes it would.

Textual deviants.😎

@js357 said
Textual deviants.😎

LOL@ the nut jobs!!! 😲

Not meant for anyone in particular only the nut jobs you all know who you are, or maybe you don't! 😉 😛

-VR

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Nice historical reference, I love tidbits like this.

@wolfgang59 said
Nice historical reference, I love tidbits like this.

Agreed.......Much better than Different to, than, or from? 😉

-VR

@wolfgang59 said
Nice historical reference, I love tidbits like this.

And it's true, too!

@very-rusty said
So long as you know what is being said how it is being said shouldn't really matter in my opinion. This isn't an English class, besides even Americans & Canadians spell things and say things differently. Lets not even involve the English in the conversation! 😉

-VR

However, grammar and usage IS an indicator of intelligence.

@very-rusty said
Hey we got the same thing correct we are both men! 😉

-VR

I'm convinced. You know, just from the evidence you provide, you can't possibly be a woman.

@js357 said
I blame the French. ‘ The French don't care what they do actually, as long as they pronounce it properly’. - H. Higgins

Well, they can't even do that.

Look at a French word, then listen to it being pronounced. That is why I transferred from French to German after a week. I couldn't take it anymore.

@soothfast said
Are you trying to start a holy war here?

I tend to think of myself as rather decent at grammar, but there are still certain issues I have...

1) "Jim and I were there."
2) "I and Jim were there."
3) "Jim and me were there."
4) "Me and Jim were there."

Now, I believe (1) and (2) are the correct sentences. But (2) sounds seriously affected and I almost never h ...[text shortened]... ) are more or less considered normal on the street.

In German it is almost always more clear-cut.

"Me" is not nominative and therefore does not belong in the subject of a sentence. (1) is always correct. (4) is never correct. Just because you hear Neanderthals saying it in public, please understand that it is never correct and only serves to highlight the intelligence level of the speaker.

"In German it is almost always more clear-cut."

Correct. You never, ever, ever. ever, ever hear a German substituting "mich" for "Ich". They know the difference, and Americans should, too.

@ghost-of-a-duke said
Yes sir, yes it would.

Not to be the punctuation police, but I notice you omitted two commas in different places than usual. Is this part of the coding scheme for Pondy's numbers station?

@soothfast said
Are you trying to start a holy war here?

I tend to think of myself as rather decent at grammar, but there are still certain issues I have...

1) "Jim and I were there."
2) "I and Jim were there."
3) "Jim and me were there."
4) "Me and Jim were there."

Now, I believe (1) and (2) are the correct sentences. But (2) sounds seriously affected and I almost never h ...[text shortened]... ) are more or less considered normal on the street.

In German it is almost always more clear-cut.

1) Correct book English.
2) Incorrect because of putting oneself first.
3) That's fine, because language precedes transcription.
4) That's also fine, because it proceeds outwards naturally without concern for social contrivances and constipations.

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Have at me, peeps!