29 Jan '07 09:18>
Originally posted by LemonJelloYes, there's no doubt moral relativism can be understood in many ways. And it was about time someone mentioned metaethics which isn't the same as normative ethical theories.
There are also many different ways this can be put forth. It could be simply a descriptive anthropologic claim that, in fact, differing groups have adopted and do adopt differing sets of social norms; or it could be a metaethical thesis that the truth values of moral claims are relative to the beliefs, practices, etc., of these differing groups; or it co ...[text shortened]... So, yeah, I agree with you that it's considerably more complicated than jammer's initial post.
If you think of it from the point of view of everyday consciousness who is always a moral agent, a moral relativist sees that morality doesn't have a universal basis. And what kind of moral relativist you turn out to be depends on how you take this relativistic truth. Perhaps the most common solution is to act AS IF the sublime moral truths of the ruling ideology were universal and correct (just to mention one form of consciousness; of course, it must be said, we often are moral relativist without knowing it).
Actually, I may have shot Jammer's formulation down too hastily. There is, as a matter of fact, a moral relativist, or a nihilist really, who thought that the morality of the present culture doesn't support Life and an individual should set new values on his (not her) own. I'm referrering to the nietzschean overman. Jammer's definition of moral relativism could be understood in this respect. However, we must remember, as Nietzsche himself emphasized, that it's not that easy to be an overman (in fact, after Foucault we can argue that it's impossible). The problem here is that this nietzschean approach isn't necessarely relativism: isn't Nietzsche just trying to universalize his perspectivism, to make his overman an incarnation of "absolute" and universally acceptable moral position?