Originally posted by @chaney3 Can you give your opinion of why affirmative action was made policy?
You can look it up. The reasons why affirmative action was adopted as the policy in various national and cultural contexts have all been explicitly laid out. My opinion has no bearing on why the policy was adopted.
Originally posted by @fmf You can look it up. The reasons why affirmative action was adopted as the policy in various national and cultural contexts have all been explicitly laid out. My opinion has no bearing on why the policy was adopted.
Opinions are why we debate.
Do black people, for example, view themselves as inferior? Are they really that happy to know they got a job because of a 'quota', and not because they were qualified.
Originally posted by @fmf When is and isn't "intentional race-based discrimination" morally sound?
I feel profound doubts about the law being used to compel any private sector actors to enter into transactions they don't want to enter into. I think if they are in receipt of public funding or government support or subsidy, I think they can be expected and required to not discriminate. I think it is reasonable that public sector education facility can have as one of its objectives the production of educated (potential) leaders from all parts of society and not just the dominant ethnic group. But I have some misgivings about the nuts and bolts of how 'affirmative action' is implemented.
Originally posted by @chaney3 Opinions are why we debate.
The justification for the policy is something you can look up. I have never drawn up and implemented such a policy. So if you want to know "why" the policy was instituted - which is what you asked - you should look into the reasons the institutions and governments gave.
Originally posted by @chaney3 Do black people, for example, view themselves as inferior? Are they really that happy to know they got a job because of a 'quota', and not because they were qualified.
Which "black people"?
I don't see it as my place to speak on behalf of some generic demographic that you refer to as "black people".
Originally posted by @chaney3 If a black person gets a job over a white person because of a 'quota', rather than qualifications, then is that morally sound?
The answer lies in 2 things:
Why affirmative action exists.
The self perception of a race, and if they truly view themselves as inferior.
For whatever reason there is a desparity in IQ between different racial groups in the US.
These IQ differences have a direct correlation to college entrance exam scores.
Originally posted by @chaney3 If a black person gets a job over a white person because of a 'quota', rather than qualifications, then is that morally sound?
Have you factored in the answer I've already given about my attitude to affirmative action?
Originally posted by @chaney3 If a black person gets a job over a white person because of a 'quota', rather than qualifications, then is that morally sound?
Well, one of those qualifications might well be consideration of the applicant's ethnicity.
Originally posted by @chaney3 If a black person gets a job over a white person because of a 'quota', rather than qualifications, then is that morally sound?
Not necessarily. But it'd be a grey area. The objective behind the "quota" might be in pursuit of a morally sound outcome. I think, if the white person you mention was thereafter unable to find employment and was unable to survive economically, then one could possibly argue that she was treated in a morally unsound way. But if she just picked herself up and got a job somewhere else, then it would be rather moot. The same could be said for a person discriminated against for not being "white".
Originally posted by @eladar For whatever reason there is a desparity in IQ between different racial groups in the US.
These IQ differences have a direct correlation to college entrance exam scores.
This question I put to you on page 1 still hasn't been answered:
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Is it, in your view, morally sound to engage in intentional race-based discrimination?
Originally posted by @fmf This question I put to you on page 1 still hasn't been answered:
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Is it, in your view, morally sound to engage in intentional race-based discrimination?
I do not believe that being a racist wiil be an automatic ticket to hell.
But I answered your question about my personal belief on this issue in my first post.
Originally posted by @fmf Not necessarily. But it'd be a grey area. The objective behind the "quota" might be in pursuit of a morally sound outcome. I think, if the white person you mention was thereafter unable to find employment and was unable to survive economically, then one could possibly argue that she was treated in a morally unsound way. But if she just picked herself up and got ...[text shortened]... be rather moot. The same could be said for a person discriminated against for not being "white".
The term 'morally sound' may be over the top.
I don't think it's 'right' for the government to force employers to hire someone 'just because'.
And why exactly would black people favor this action. I still think they should all turn to the government and say "thanks, but no thanks". It would speak volumes on how they view themselves.
Originally posted by @eladar I do not believe that being a racist wiil be an automatic ticket to hell.
I am not really interested in your superstitions and your notion of "sin" on this topic. Feel free to expound upon them, but stuff about supernatural phenomena and supernatural beings doesn't address my question in a way that interests me. For example, whether you think you yourself are or aren't going to "hell" would be neither here nor there.
03 Aug '17 01:41
Affirmative Action
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