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Are Lesbians Given A Pass?

Are Lesbians Given A Pass?

Spirituality

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As a Christian I was taught that homosexuality is a sin, and the proof of it can be found in scripture, yet in reading these passages, and others relating to the subject, the Bible get's very specific about what two men may NOT do together, yet it says little or nothing about two women. I'm not taking sides here, but was wondering two things:

1. Is it possible Lesbians are given a pass, and that the relationship between two women, while not encouraged, is not strictly forbidden?

2. Could this have anything to do with the fact that Lesbians are generally accepted in many society's more than gay men?

Leviticus 18:22 'You shall not lie with a man, as with a woman. That is detestable.

1 Corinthians 6:9-11 Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality, nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. And such were some of you. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God.

1 Timothy 1:10 The sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine

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Originally posted by bill718
As a Christian I was taught that homosexuality is a sin, and the proof of it can be found in scripture, yet in reading these passages, and others relating to the subject, the Bible get's very specific about what two men may NOT do together, yet it says little or nothing about two women. I'm not taking sides here, but was wondering two things:

1. Is it pos ...[text shortened]... tice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine
I believe the following refers to Lesbians too:

For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural, and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indecent acts and receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error.

(Romans 1:26-27 NASB)

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Originally posted by RJHinds
[b]I believe the following refers to Lesbians too:

For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural, and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indec ...[text shortened]... d receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error.

(Romans 1:26-27 NASB)[/b]
That's just it. Lesbians, like most lovers ,not all, don't have sex to fullfill any "natural function".

You're going to have to work out whether you think gayness is just "..committing indecent acts.." or a misrepresentation of some "natural function" - which is like a way to say " I'm going to have enough libido to father about 3 or 4 kids, and if I'm in luck I may only need to have sex with my wife 10-15 times all up".

You're not going to win any friends, gay or otherwise, by saying that they are going against scripture and misrepresenting their natural functions. No one (sane) wants to be known for committng "indecent acts" , yet many would like loving, sexually fulfilling relationships with someone who they are attracted to.

It's going to be hard to find many to see any error in their ways

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Originally posted by karoly aczel
That's just it. Lesbians, like most lovers ,not all, don't have sex to fullfill any "natural function".
Having children is not the only 'natural function' of sex in humans. Bond forming is a very large part of it.

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The Semitic peoples (Jews and Arabs) had a long tradition of keeping multiple wives and concubines. I think it was probably assumed that some physical affection would develop among them.

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Originally posted by moonbus
The Semitic peoples (Jews and Arabs) had a long tradition of keeping multiple wives and concubines. I think it was probably assumed that some physical affection would develop among them.
The main reason for the bias however is that the Bible was written by men for men.

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Originally posted by karoly aczel
That's just it. Lesbians, like most lovers ,not all, don't have sex to fullfill any "natural function".

You're going to have to work out whether you think gayness is just "..committing indecent acts.." or a misrepresentation of some "natural function" - which is like a way to say " I'm going to have enough libido to father about 3 or 4 kids, and if ...[text shortened]... who they are attracted to.

It's going to be hard to find many to see any error in their ways
What do you say is meant by the natural function that the women exchanged for that which is unnatural in the same way as the men exchanged the natural function of the women for their desire for other men?

This seems to me to be refferring to sexual desire by women with women in the same way as men's sexual desire for other men, which was both considered unnatural.

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Originally posted by twhitehead
The main reason for the bias however is that the Bible was written by men for men.
And they probably had no idea what was going on the harem anyway.

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Originally posted by RJHinds
[b]I believe the following refers to Lesbians too:

For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural, and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indec ...[text shortened]... d receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error.

(Romans 1:26-27 NASB)[/b]
Maybe...and maybe not. That comes close to addressing Lesbians, but does not specifically do so. Maybe the implication is that God's laws apply to both men and women equally. I still find it interesting that there is no less than 6 passages in the Bible specifically forbidding 2 men to have sexual relations, yet there is nothing that specifically address's 2 women. Maybe we'll never know.

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Originally posted by bill718
As a Christian I was taught that homosexuality is a sin, and the proof of it can be found in scripture, yet in reading these passages, and others relating to the subject, the Bible get's very specific about what two men may NOT do together, yet it says little or nothing about two women. I'm not taking sides here, but was wondering two things:

1. Is it pos ...[text shortened]... tice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine
Homosexuality is not the only sin in the Bible. There are other sins that befall lesbianism. Like the lust of the eyes and the pride of life etc. etc.

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Originally posted by bill718
As a Christian I was taught that homosexuality is a sin, and the proof of it can be found in scripture, yet in reading these passages, and others relating to the subject, the Bible get's very specific about what two men may NOT do together, yet it says little or nothing about two women. I'm not taking sides here, but was wondering two things:

1. Is it pos ...[text shortened]... tice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine
more likely, the men who wrote the bible couldn't fathom women having sexuality.

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Originally posted by bill718
As a Christian I was taught that homosexuality is a sin, and the proof of it can be found in scripture, yet in reading these passages, and others relating to the subject, the Bible get's very specific about what two men may NOT do together, yet it says little or nothing about two women. I'm not taking sides here, but was wondering two things:

1. Is it pos ...[text shortened]... tice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine
Lesbianism falls under the category of homosexuality.
It is sin, so is stealing, murder, worship of idols, etc.... so what is your point?

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Originally posted by bill718
Maybe...and maybe not. That comes close to addressing Lesbians, but does not specifically do so. Maybe the implication is that God's laws apply to both men and women equally. I still find it interesting that there is no less than 6 passages in the Bible specifically forbidding 2 men to have sexual relations, yet there is nothing that specifically address's 2 women. Maybe we'll never know.
It is your choice to believe or not to believe. 😏

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Originally posted by RJHinds
[b]I believe the following refers to Lesbians too:

For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural, and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indec ...[text shortened]... d receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error.

(Romans 1:26-27 NASB)[/b]
So there is nothing you can do for your son, who is apparently headed for hell.

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Originally posted by sonhouse
So there is nothing you can do for your son, who is apparently headed for hell.
Sonhouse.......are you suggesting that Hinds's son is gay? How do you know this? And, I am very curious about Hinds's answer if this is true.

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