18 May '13 13:21>3 edits
The verse in Genesis stating that man was made in the image of God makes it clear that by "man" - male and female is intended.
Genesis 1:27 - "And God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female he created them."
You're not talking to the Instructor now. You're reading my response.
I have already spoken to your 50 shekels / 30 shekels complaint. Most likely the military service of the male was valued higher.
Tell me why bigamy or polygamy is not instructed in the law of Moses ?
Why does Leviticus 18:18 forbid a man to take his wife's sister also as a wife ?
"Do not take your wife's sister [literally, 'a woman to her sister'] as a rival wife and have sexual relations with her while your wife is living." (NIV)
We know some Old Testament figures had more than one wife. But you cannot prove God commanded it but rather made some provision for it as He would for contacting leprosy or fleeing an avenging enemy.
By the way, the literal words "a woman to her sister" and its counterpart "a man to his brother," are used twenty times in the Hebrew Scriptures, and never do they refer to a literal sister or brother. Rather, they are idioms for "on in addition to another." So the passage is not concerning INCEST. It refers to a wife in addition to a wife already possessed.
If women in God's law are inferior as in the many cultures in ancient Near East where polygamy was law, why does God rule against it in Leviticus 18:18 ?
Genesis 1:27 - "And God created man in His own image; in the image of God He created him; male and female he created them."
You're not talking to the Instructor now. You're reading my response.
I have already spoken to your 50 shekels / 30 shekels complaint. Most likely the military service of the male was valued higher.
Tell me why bigamy or polygamy is not instructed in the law of Moses ?
Why does Leviticus 18:18 forbid a man to take his wife's sister also as a wife ?
"Do not take your wife's sister [literally, 'a woman to her sister'] as a rival wife and have sexual relations with her while your wife is living." (NIV)
We know some Old Testament figures had more than one wife. But you cannot prove God commanded it but rather made some provision for it as He would for contacting leprosy or fleeing an avenging enemy.
By the way, the literal words "a woman to her sister" and its counterpart "a man to his brother," are used twenty times in the Hebrew Scriptures, and never do they refer to a literal sister or brother. Rather, they are idioms for "on in addition to another." So the passage is not concerning INCEST. It refers to a wife in addition to a wife already possessed.
If women in God's law are inferior as in the many cultures in ancient Near East where polygamy was law, why does God rule against it in Leviticus 18:18 ?