14 Oct '08 00:09>
Originally posted by robbie carrobieBackup, not so fast.
there is absolutely no confusion whatsoever, for example that the parable was clearly allegorical is seen in hyperbole used by Christ, for example, would dipping ones finger and placing it on someones tongue relieve them if they were literally in torment? there is no mention that the richman was wicked, merely that he was rich, there is no mention o ...[text shortened]... s wretched state, its purely allegorical. now the question is, to whom is it addressed and why?
Hyperbole can only be claimed if you are familiar with the circumstances. You know nothing about hellfire on a firsthand basis. You know nothing about the effect of water on the person in torment. So you dont know nomal from exaggerated, do you ?
According to Christ the richman was wicked in that he refused to follow the second greatest commandment "love thy neighbour".
According to Christ in Matt 5 :
3 Blessed are the poor in spirit: for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.
4 Blessed are they that mourn: for they shall be comforted.
5 Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth
Surely one of those will apply to Lazarus.
What say you?