Originally posted by ahosyney
[b]Paul did not add this idea to Christianity. Neither did he call the law of God itself a curse.
I think you are wrong: Read this..
(king James Version)(Galatians)(Gal-48-13)(Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a treeπ
He didn't only call it a cu ...[text shortened]... see your answers
Again have a nice week end.[/b]
He didn't only call it a curse, but also he made Jesus himself a curse. So even if he said the law is a holy he will be contradicting himself.
Christ was made a 'curse' because he took upon himself the just punishment of the law for all sinners, not because he is a 'curse' by nature. His nature is holy and innocent, and because he perfectly obeyed the law himself, his sacrifice, his being made a 'curse' in our place on the cross, procured the forgiveness of sins for all who believe in him. Since the judgment of the law is death, Christ suffered death, but since he was also innocent, God raised him from the dead and glorified him.
So you see, there is no contradiction here. What you mistakenly claim to be a contradiction is really the character of God's grace in Jesus Christ, who, though he was without sin, bore the sins of the world upon himself. In the crucified Christ is God's suffering love for mankind, and much more glorifying to God than anything Mohommed ever did.
It is paul who said that without Blood there is no forgivness, while GOD say something different and Jesus say something different. Jesus clearly said that he came to call siner to repentance. And if you read Ezk:18 you will realize that GOD forgive sins throught repentance. So you will see that you are following Paul.
God made 'provision' for the forgiveness of sins, once for all time in the crucifixion of Christ on the cross. "We are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ
once for all" (Hebrews 10:10). The Israelite's blood sacrifices in the OT were merely prefiguring Christ's sacrifice. However, the
requirement of shed blood for forgiveness of sins was made abundantly clear by the countless sacrificial bulls slaughtered from generation to generation of Israelites. Obviously, then, the 'shed blood requirement for remission of sins' is not something Paul concocted on his own without precedent; far from it!
'He fulfilled the law by dying for the sins of the world on the cross.'
Again that is what Paul preached not Jesus. Jesus was teaching the law, and asking his students to follow the law. Wasn't Jesus teaching the law in the tempel? Why did he do that? Why don't you follow the law now if you follow Jesus?
Who ever said Christians don't follow the law? Christians are taught to follow the law. "As He who called you is holy, you also be holy in all your conduct, because it is written, “Be holy, for I am holy"" (1 Peter 1:15-16). Faith does not exempt one from living a holy life, on the contrary, faith "establishes the law" (Romans 3:31).
We (Christians) do not obey the law in order to earn God's favor, we obey the law because the Spirit of God has written God's law on our hearts; the Spirit of God which we received when we first believed in Jesus Christ, through Whom we have the power to know and do God's perfect will. Again, not an idea original to Paul (Jeremiah 31:33).
he can say, "I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one can come to the Father except through me" (John 14:16),
Every prophet is the way and truth and life for his follower. This doesn't prove anything.
Yes, but he said it roughly 1,500 years before Mohammed did. π
Didn't you ask yourself "he is the way to what?", he is the way to the father , the true GOD. The way is sure different from the destination.
Oh, really? Read the rest of the passage:
"Jesus said to him, "I am the way, and the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.
If you had known me, you would have known my Father also. From now on you do know him and have seen him" (John 14:6-7).
And in the Bible "son of GOD" usually means a close man to GOD. So all prophets are sons of GOD, and all prophets give to those who believe in them eternal life. Jesus is talking like any other prophet.
Not so. You've left out the distinction "only" Son. That means there is only one of him. I'm sure the common Greek word for 'son' is used in conjunction with "only", but nevertheless, this passage speaks of the ONLY SON of God.
Givin that he was only sent to Jews (not for every one) then you will have another problem with this scripture
Again, not true.
The prophecy regarding the Gentiles in Hosea clearly says that Christ came to redeem all men, whether Jew or Gentile: "I will have mercy upon her that had not obtained mercy; and I will say to them which were not my people, Thou art my people; and they shall say, Thou art my God" (Hosea 2:23).
Also consider these passages: "In his name shall the Gentiles trust" (Matthew 12:21). "For my eyes have seen your salvation that you have prepared in the presence of all peoples, a light for revelation to the Gentiles, and for glory to your people Israel" (Luke 2:30-32). "If then God gave the same gift to them as he gave to us when we believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I that I could stand in God's way?" When they heard these things they fell silent. And they glorified God, saying, "Then to the Gentiles also God has granted repentance that leads to life"" (Acts 11:17-18).
Clearly, Jesus Christ was sent to the Jews first, but when they rejected him, his message was sent to the Gentiles too. That's you and me...
If you read Ezekiel:18 you will know how GOD forgives sins, and if he needs blood sacrifice for it. Do you believe in Ezekiel:18?
You are obviously not privy to the fact that Christ was "the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world" (Revelation 13:8). The provision for forgiveness existed in God before the world was even made, long before Ezekiel 18 was written. When God forgives, it is through the "Lamb slain from the foundation of the world," whether in the Old Testament or the New.
'The God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob makes provision for our forgiveness through Jesus Christ's death on the cross: "And it is by God’s will that we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all" (Hebrews 10:10). But the Quran gives no substantial means for Allah to forgive sins. To me, this detracts heavily from the integrity of the Quran.'
Again you refere to Hebrews, to prove your point.
If you want I can use any book in the NT to prove my point... π
You said Jesus said he will die on the cross for the sins of the world, while the scripture you gave doesn't say any of that. The word cross doesn't exist. It is just a conclusion.
"And as they came out, they found a man of Cyrene, Simon by name: him they compelled to bear his
cross" (Matthew 27:32).
""You who would destroy the temple and rebuild it in three days, save yourself! If you are the Son of God, come down from the
cross"" (Matthew 27:40).
"He saved others; himself he cannot save. If he be the King of Israel, let him now come down from the
cross, and we will believe him" (Matthew 27:42).
"And he bearing his
cross went forth into a place called the place of a skull, which is called in the Hebrew Golgotha" (John 19:17).
"And Pilate wrote a title, and put it on the
cross. And the writing was JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS" (John 19:19).
This is fun...
Any way I wish you read Ezkial:18 and compare to what I said from Quran. Then compare to Paul's writtings may be you can realize the truth.
I've already addressed this issue in this post, i.e. the "Lamb slain from the foundation of the world..."