1. Standard memberRBHILL
    Acts 13:48
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    24 Feb '17 20:08
    I say Yahweh. Jehovah came about in 1520 by Peter Galatin. You learn something new every day.
    http://www.yaiy.org/literature/IsHisName.html
  2. SubscriberGhost of a Duke
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    25 Feb '17 15:54
    tomayto, tomahto.
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    25 Feb '17 16:342 edits
    if you are going to pronounce it Yahweh then you are of course going to be consistent and call Jesus - Yeshua, Jehovah is simply a Latinised form the same as Jesus is Latinised.
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    25 Feb '17 16:40
    Jehovah is the modern accepted name of God. But if one were to use just the yhwh or yahweh, at least one is using God's name. Sadly many still refuse to use it in any form. This makes it very hard when reading the bible in knowing who is being spoken of when the word lord, Lord or LORD is used. This is the result of the influence of those who teach the trinity.

    For example:

    Vatican Seeks to Eliminate Use of the Divine Name

    "The Catholic hierarchy is seeking to eliminate the use of the divine name in their church services. Last year, the Vatican Congregation for Divine Worship and the Discipline of the Sacraments sent instructions on this matter to Catholic bishops’ conferences worldwide. The step was taken “by directive” of the pope.

    This document, dated June 29, 2008, decries the fact that despite instructions to the contrary, “in recent years the practice has crept in of pronouncing the God of Israel’s proper name, known as the holy or divine tetragrammaton, written with four consonants of the Hebrew alphabet in the form יהוה, YHWH.” The document notes that the divine name has variously been rendered “Yahweh,” “Yahwè,” “Jahweh,” “Jahwè,” “Jave,” “Yehovah,” and so forth.* However, the Vatican directive seeks to reestablish the traditional Catholic position. That is to say, the Tetragrammaton is to be replaced by “Lord.” Moreover, in Catholic religious services, hymns, and prayers, God’s name “YHWH is neither to be used or pronounced.”

    In support of this position, the Vatican’s document appeals to the “immemorial tradition” of Catholicism. The directive claims that even in the Septuagint translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, dating to pre-Christian times, the divine name was regularly rendered Kyʹri·os, the Greek word for “Lord.” Thus, the directive insists, “Christians, too, from the beginning never pronounced the divine tetragrammaton.” This statement, however, ignores clear evidence to the contrary. Early copies of the Septuagint contained, not Kyʹri·os, but the divine name in the form יהוה. Christ’s first-century followers knew and pronounced God’s name. Jesus himself said in prayer to his Father: “I have made your name known.” (John 17:26) And in his well-known model prayer, Jesus taught us to pray: “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.”—Matthew 6:9.
  5. Standard memberkaroly aczel
    the Devil himself
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    25 Feb '17 22:38
    So in Indiana Jones part 3 (The last Crusade with Sean Connery) Indy makes a mistake when he starts to spell Jehovah with a "j" instead of an "i".

    Whats that all about then?
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    25 Feb '17 23:00
    Originally posted by karoly aczel
    So in Indiana Jones part 3 (The last Crusade with Sean Connery) Indy makes a mistake when he starts to spell Jehovah with a "j" instead of an "i".

    Whats that all about then?
    It could have something to with Greek for the J in Jesus is represented by an I in Greek, Iésous
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    26 Feb '17 00:00
    Acts 4:12
    Salvation is found in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given to mankind by which we must be saved.

    Pretty clear which name matters...
  8. SubscriberSuzianne
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    26 Feb '17 06:291 edit
    Originally posted by karoly aczel
    So in Indiana Jones part 3 (The last Crusade with Sean Connery) Indy makes a mistake when he starts to spell Jehovah with a "j" instead of an "i".

    Whats that all about then?
    Latin had no "J".

    True story.

    This is why the sign they put up over Jesus' head when he was on the cross was "I N R I", "Jesus the Nazarene, King of the Jews."

    In Greek, it was I N B I, translating to "Jesus the Nazorean, King of the Judeans."
  9. SubscriberSuzianne
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    26 Feb '17 06:301 edit
    Originally posted by robbie carrobie
    It could have something to with Greek for the J in Jesus is represented by an I in Greek, Iésous
    This is why I doubt you're really as educated as you represent yourself to be.

    Did the Romans speak Greek?
  10. Standard memberkaroly aczel
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    26 Feb '17 08:10
    Originally posted by robbie carrobie
    It could have something to with Greek for the J in Jesus is represented by an I in Greek, Iésous
    So why you call "Him" Jehovah? What about authenticity? Or is this a "go with what fits" type scenario"
  11. Standard memberkaroly aczel
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    26 Feb '17 08:12
    Originally posted by Suzianne
    Latin had no "J".

    True story.

    This is why the sign they put up over Jesus' head when he was on the cross was "I N R I", "Jesus the Nazarene, King of the Jews."

    In Greek, it was I N B I, translating to "Jesus the Nazorean, King of the Judeans."
    Yeah so ... just change the letters to fit?
    I mean what language are you guys talking?
  12. Standard memberkaroly aczel
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    26 Feb '17 08:15
    Originally posted by Suzianne
    This is why I doubt you're really as educated as you represent yourself to be.

    Did the Romans speak Greek?
    Arrr heck, you're as educated as him.. just in different ways. Or maybe he;s more educated or you are...what does it matter?
    Add something to the narrative... or not
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    26 Feb '17 08:27
    Originally posted by Suzianne
    Latin had no "J".

    True story.

    This is why the sign they put up over Jesus' head when he was on the cross was "I N R I", "Jesus the Nazarene, King of the Jews."

    In Greek, it was I N B I, translating to "Jesus the Nazorean, King of the Judeans."
    It seems that once again you may only be groping around in darkness. What Latin scholars had was no equivalent for the letter I and they therfore substituted the letter J

    The letter j is rather different to those discussed so far, as it did not exist in Latin and, of course, a great deal of the medieval literate tradition is in Latin. This does need a little explanation. Old textbooks on the Latin language or paleography will inform you that Classical Latin had no letter for consonantal i. The use of j for this purpose in Latin textbooks predates my learning of the language at school, but contrary to popular belief that was some time after the medieval era. Nonetheless, by that time Latin scholars had come to the astonishing conclusion that if the Latin alphabet had no consonantal i, perhaps the spoken language actually didn't have one either. After all, if the founders of modern western literacy had needed a symbol for a sound, no doubt they could have managed to come up with one.

    Latin pronunciation, as taught, was changed and the letter j, representing consonantal i, as it had been introduced to the language, was no longer pronounced as soft g, but as y. As a result of this and other pronunciation changes which were introduced, Iulius (or Julius) Caesar was no longer pronounced jooleeus seezar but yuleeus kizar, at least in theory. We don't actually know exactly how ancient Latin was pronounced, as they had no tape recorders, and who knows what changes might have been wrought through two millennia of church Latin, but inferences have been made through the scansion of Latin poetry and the like. The reformed pronunciation did rather spoil that piece of schoolkid doggerel that began Caesar adsum jam forte.

    http://medievalwriting.50megs.com/scripts/letters/historyj.htm
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    26 Feb '17 08:29
    Originally posted by karoly aczel
    So why you call "Him" Jehovah? What about authenticity? Or is this a "go with what fits" type scenario"
    because its as good as anything else, why call Jesus Jesus and not Yeshua.
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    26 Feb '17 08:31
    Originally posted by Suzianne
    This is why I doubt you're really as educated as you represent yourself to be.

    Did the Romans speak Greek?
    actually they probably did Greek scholars were all the rage in ancient Rome.

    Classical Latin was used as an official language only. In addition, members of the Eastern Roman Empire were speaking Greek exclusively by the 4th century, and Greek had replaced Latin as the official language.

    http://listverse.com/2008/05/05/top-10-myths-about-the-romans/
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