Is Jesus of New T LORD/Jehovah of the Old T?

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he offered up supplications with strong outcries, its nothing to do with a small S, nor of
a cross, he reverently appealed to God to act on his behalf and to save him! that is he
appealed to God as his saviour, you cannot escape it with excuses that he was a man,
that its a red herring etc, its documented in scripture.

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I believe it is written the Holy Bible somewhere that the Jews will
be blind for a cetain period of time before they say "blessed is He
that comes in the name of the Lord".

Originally posted by RJHinds
Only those that have sinned need a savior. Jesus was without sin.
When he received the beatings and was crucified on the cross, He
was taking the punishment that each and everyone of us deserve
for sinning against God. In the flesh He was able to feel the emotions
and pain of that punishment. He demonstrated that it was so bad
that any man would cry ...[text shortened]... e the savior
of the whole world. Without Him there would be no savior, He is the
only savior.

he is not appealing to him to save him on the basis of sin, the very same chapter of
Hebrews states that he was tested, without sin, he is appealing to God to save him, not
that term, save him, its quite important, to save him from death.

'offered up supplications and also petitions to the One who was able to save him out of

death'
Christ appealed to God to act on his behalf as a saviour, you cannot escape the fact
with excuses, its clear and in scripture.

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no we are establishing how utterly absurd your claim is that Jesus and God are the
same person, an assertion that finds no basis in scripture and is ludicrous when one
examines the ancient text, objectively with an open and unprejudiced mind.

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"But I am Jesus your God, who brought you out of Egypt. You shall acknowledge no God but me, no Saviour except me.[/b]

The assertion that divegeester would have us believe? who thinks that the Israelites
were willing to accept this also, indeed, inserting Christs name demonstrates how
utterly ridiculous the claim is.

As it has been stated numerous times, God is the source of salvation, accomplished
through Jesus, therefore there is no discrepancy in the scripture, for unless I am
mistaken, the Christ was not made manifest to Israel for some time to come,
therefore how is it possible that this verse refers to Jesus, do tell.

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Oh i see, you are now havering about physical and spiritual manifestation, ok, as Christ
had not been made manifest, how is it possible that this scripture is a reference to
Jesus, or were the Israelites to put faith in Jesus spirit? do tell.

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Merely repeating the scripture accomplishes what?

As it has been stated numerous times, God is the source of salvation, accomplished
through Jesus, therefore there is no discrepancy in the scripture, for unless I am
mistaken, the Christ was not made manifest to Israel for some time to come,
therefore how is it possible that this verse refers to Jesus, do tell.