02 Mar '07 12:40>
Originally posted by vistesdLots of good questions. No easy answers.
Are the two mutually exclusive? If Pope Benedict, for example, becomes a “media darling” (by virtue of being Pope), does that suddenly negate his scholarly credentials? How about Stephen Hawking?
What does “respected in the field” (BdN’s phrase) mean? What is the “field?” In various disciplines, there are often schools of thought such that, if one is ...[text shortened]... In arguments for ordination of women, it may be a brick in the wall, but it is hardly the wall.
What does “respected in the field” ... mean?
You raise a good question as to what the "field" is. And certainly what is legitimate enterprise is hotly contested in some fields -- most notably philosophy where many philosophers have made careers out of trying to define what philosophy is in the first place. However, let's not over-complicate things needlessly. The field of NT exegesis and Early Church history is fairly well defined. Even if not everyone will agree on the methods, the end-goal is fairly uncontroversial -- to determine, from the evidence, what most probably happened in the period.
But the question of what makes a person respected in the field is harder. Would it simply be someone whose views are adopted by the majority? Or a scholar whose core views are widely accepted, even if other individual academics have differing views on the details? Perhaps there are scholars who are respected by their peers in the sense of providing something of value, even if most of their theories are not held up to be viable.
But can a scholar be respected if his/her methods violate basic norms of scholarly integrity and method particular to that field?
Closer to home: Is John D. Crossan a respected scholar in his field? Is E.P. Sanders? Burton Mack? Luke Timothy Johnson? John D. Robinson? Geza Vermes? Jacob Neusner?
I don't know too much about all the exegetes mentioned here. From what I've read, John Robinson certainly seems to be well-respected. For Crossan (as with Funk, Hicks and others) the key criticism is that his philosophical presuppositions are unwarranted; in effect they assume what he sets out to prove.
Are the two mutually exclusive? If Pope Benedict, for example, becomes a “media darling” (by virtue of being Pope), does that suddenly negate his scholarly credentials? How about Stephen Hawking?
For starters, one must be suspicious of the extent to which the media can exaggerate the influence of an academic -- as might very well be the case with Hawking. And, in its own way, the media can also influence reputed universities to consider certain academics for posts.
(Btw, I don't think Benedict is in any danger of being a "media darling" -- and certainly not as a scholar)
How should the Gospel writers be viewed? As reliable historian/biographers? As respected scholars in that field? As objective journalists? As theologians?
As disciples of Jesus who recorded his life story as they knew it for future generations. While they've certainly dramatised and edited some portions of those story, there is no need to throw the baby out with the bathwater. They're biographers of Jesus in a manner similar to Plato as a biographer of Socrates. They don't claim to be scholars; and calling them journalists is anachronistic (not that I think most journalists are "objective" even today). To some extent they're theologians (John more than others, possibly) -- but their primary goal is the presentation of the life of Jesus.
BTW, I didn’t think that Pagel’s notion ... that early Christianity was a multifaceted affair was any longer controversial. It isn’t with respect to Judaism.
It has never been controversial that early Christianity was a multi-faceted affair. What is controversial is Pagel's notions about the affair.
With regard to the issue, I have no particular axe to grind—except that I don’t think the questions ought to be dismissed out-of-hand based on religious doctrine.
I couldn't agree more. But, if one is to be fair, one musn't replace Christian religious doctrine with other ones (albeit ones masquerading as modernist and/or humanist). For instance, is it any less "religious" to assume a priori that miracles are impossible and therefore that the Evangelists created the miracle accounts? Is it any less "religious" to assume a priori that the Early Church did not have an idea of Jesus as God and therefore all direct quotes of Jesus's divinity attribted to Jesus must be inauthentic?
That's all those on the orthodox side of the field are asking for -- objectivity in approach (whatever their personal beliefs are).
With regard to seeking textual support for women being in positions of authority (and not just “household authority” ) in the early church, and even held positions that today might be called “ecclesiastical,” some of that can be found within the canonical texts.
Sure. But is textual support the only kind of historical evidence there is?