Originally posted by tacoandlettuce If one were to mark the side of some Church's wall with a marker, would this not be tampering with it's holiness? Not that it could change it to be unholy, but it would have tampered with this holiness. The KJ was ORDAINED to BE ordained by God, or it would not have been called Holy.
I have an old King James bible passed down by my ancestors. I don't have it with me, its in storage somewhere. But I do remember clearly reading the preface, and it quite clearly states that the translators do not believe they have translated everything perfectly and fully expect there to be revisions over time as better understanding of the original text or older texts become available.
Originally posted by tacoandlettuce Do you really think God would have allowed King James to ordain what was if it were NOT Holy?
So all of HIS children would grow into learning lies about what is Holy?
Cmon, what -is Holy- IS that, -HOLY-, and meant not to be tampered with.
ho-ly   
[hoh-lee] Show IPA
1.
specially recognized as or declared sacred by religious ...[text shortened]... eived by religious individuals as associated with the divine) or sacred (considered worthy ...
You would be better off either learning the original languages or reading the
scriptures using several translations with prayer.
Kelly
Originally posted by KellyJay Can you tell what changed between the Old Testament law and the grace Jesus's
won for us between God and man, and why? As it looks now, I don’t think you
grasp the change in covenant that took place.
Kelly
You keep veering off point. Let's see if we can work back to it.
In Matthew 5:38-39 Jesus directly contradicts what is written in Leviticus 24:19-20. "Eye for eye, tooth for tooth" does not reflect righteousness, i.e., "the word of God". It does not reflect the standard recognized by Jesus, i.e., "YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF".
Can you not see this?
"The whole Law and the Prophets" depend upon "YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF". Therefore whatever doesn't reflect this standard cannot be "the Law". What is written in Leviticus 24:19-20, cannot be "the Law".
Originally posted by twhitehead I have an old King James bible passed down by my ancestors. I don't have it with me, its in storage somewhere. But I do remember clearly reading the preface, and it quite clearly states that the translators do not believe they have translated everything perfectly and fully expect there to be revisions over time as better understanding of the original text or older texts become available.
Holy means that, -HOLY-, to which is NOT to be tampered with, for it would no longer BE Holy.
If that is what was ordained that all are to use as the Holy Bible, than that IS what IS Holy.
Originally posted by KellyJay You would be better off either learning the original languages or reading the
scriptures using several translations with prayer.
Kelly
Holy means that, -HOLY-, to which is NOT to be tampered with, for it would no longer BE Holy.
If that is what was ordained that all are to use as the Holy Bible, than that IS what IS Holy.
Originally posted by ThinkOfOne You keep veering off point. Let's see if we can work back to it.
In Matthew 5:38-39 Jesus directly contradicts what is written in Leviticus 24:19-20. "Eye for eye, tooth for tooth" does not reflect righteousness, i.e., "the word of God". It does not reflect the standard recognized by Jesus, i.e., "YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF".
Can you n is written in Leviticus 24:19-20, cannot be "the Law".
Can you not see this?
You still have not answered my post "19 Oct '10 20:30", asking you "Do you know WHY we are to love our neighbor as ourself? ", and then shared a link as to why
Originally posted by tacoandlettuce You still have not answered my post "19 Oct '10 20:30", asking you "Do you know WHY we are to love our neighbor as ourself? ", and then shared a link as to why
Originally posted by ThinkOfOne The way it was worded, I took the question as rhetorical. Plus it seemed to be off-topic.
You seem to think you know the answer, so just state it instead of forcing me to go to youtube to watch some video that contains who knows what.
I brought it basically back to the attention because you keep posting it over and over again, but show no interest to what it is you are stating.
To love one another, one must be awake to the fact that we are no different, other than individualism, and that we all are connected spiritually, and many choose not to open their ears, nor eyes to see or hear this and is why there is so much animosity, judgement, racism, war, and all other captivity that keeps us from our WONDERFUL beauty we possess.
Originally posted by tacoandlettuce I brought it basically back to the attention because you keep posting it over and over again, but show no interest to what it is you are stating.
To love one another, one must be awake to the fact that we are no different, other than individualism, and that we all are connected spiritually, and many choose not to open their ears, nor eyes to see or ...[text shortened]... gement, racism, war, and all other captivity that keeps us from our WONDERFUL beauty we possess.
I post it over and over again, because it is at the crux of the matter.
Originally posted by tacoandlettuce Holy means that, -HOLY-, to which is NOT to be tampered with, for it would no longer BE Holy.
If that is what was ordained that all are to use as the Holy Bible, than that IS what IS Holy.
Revelation 22:19 (King James Version)
You know that the King James is a translation right, just as all the other English
versions are translations? Not debating what is or isn't Holy, I believe the Word
of God is Holy.
Kelly
Originally posted by KellyJay You know that the King James is a translation right, just as all the other English
versions are translations? Not debating what is or isn't Holy, I believe the Word
of God is Holy.
Kelly
Yet, as I have said before, God would not allowed the ordaining to take place of the KING JAMES Holy Bible if it were unholy, for it would deceive HIS children, which is of the devil, the enemy.
Originally posted by tacoandlettuce Yet, as I have said before, God would not allowed the ordaining to take place of the KING JAMES Holy Bible if it were unholy, for it would deceive HIS children, which is of the devil, the enemy.
It's what was ordained to BE ordained by God.
What do you mean, "ordaining" did the earth shake, did the vale of the Temple
rip down the middle or something like that when the King James was written? I'm
not trying to be a jerk here, I think I'm missing something from your point of view
and I want you to enlighten me.
Kelly
Originally posted by tacoandlettuce Yet, as I have said before, God would not allowed the ordaining to take place of the KING JAMES Holy Bible if it were unholy, for it would deceive HIS children, which is of the devil, the enemy.
It's what was ordained to BE ordained by God.
Another question the years before King James, and those people that do not
speak English....what about them?
Kelly
I am saying if it is ordained, and was the FIRST to BE ordained, don't you acknowledge obviously God allowed it? Or HE would not BE what HE claims HIMSELF to BE!
Judaism and Slavery in the Biblical Era
20 Oct '10 05:27
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