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Originally posted by mantawa
Darfius, you don't make sense.
Why? Because my statements don't follow logically or because you don't like my brand of Truth?

If the latter, perhaps you should consider that the Truth is absolute, regardless of our perception or feelings about it.

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religion... i general verry seldom applies to logic... and "your brand of truth"... i like my brand... it has more sugar and less cafeen... 😀

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Originally posted by Darfius
[b]Darfius, your ignorance is sometimes astounding. What do you think the masters did with their slaves?

Made them work for free.

The Bible may specifically warn about raping, but it also warns against killing. Yet they Israelites killed. Are you claiming that they did not rape their enemies children? Such innocence...

The Bible war ...[text shortened]... p projecting modern day thought onto nomadic Israelites under a theocracy led by God in 1500 BC.[/b]
the more history I find about that "Nomadic Tribe" as you call them the more I get the impression that they were a clan of mercenaries that had their families tag along .

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Originally posted by Darfius
Why? Because my statements don't follow logically or because you don't like my brand of Truth?

If the latter, perhaps you should consider that the Truth is absolute, regardless of our perception or feelings about it.
Actually, I can't understand how you can say things like "Of course no rape occurred. No such thing as a "defensive" rape." and proclaim it as infallible truth.

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Originally posted by mantawa
Actually, I can't understand how you can say things like "Of course no rape occurred. No such thing as a "defensive" rape." and proclaim it as infallible truth.
Well, to claim that a rape occurred, you have to claim that the Jews didn't care what God thought, and that is clearly wrong.

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Darfius, did all Jews obey God? -- No

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Originally posted by mantawa
Darfius, did all Jews obey God? -- No

So now you're claiming that because some Jews MIGHT not have obeyed God, mass rapes occurred?

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Originally posted by Darfius
So now you're claiming that because some Jews MIGHT not have obeyed God, mass rapes occurred?

No I am not most certainly not claiming that, do you think before you type?

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Re: Slaughter of the innocents by the Israelites

Originally posted by Darfius
Well, the people who were executed for their vile crimes used their free will for evil. Are you suggesting that the evil never be punished???

Oh my...
Sorry for resurrecting an old thread (I may not be the Supreme Being, but I do at least have the power of thread resurrection!)

Question for Darfius...

I've been trying to follow your logic in a number of threads on this forum, so for starters I'd like to point to a possible conflict in your logic in this thread.

Someone in an earlier post asked why God didn't ensure that Hitler didn't murder millions of Jews:

To demonstrate his REAL love, he should made Hitler's plane crash during the 1936 elections and kill him. Then HE would not have worried about how the 1 million souls felt at Auschwitz.

And your reply:

Would Hitler have had free will if God had killed him?

I'm just puzzled as to how you reconcile your two different stances on evil and free-will?

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Originally posted by PawnCurry
Sorry for resurrecting an old thread (I may not be the Supreme Being, but I do at least have the power of thread resurrection!)

Question for Darfius...

I've been trying to follow your logic in a number of threads on this forum, so for starters I'd like to point to a possible conflict in your logic in this thread.

Someone in an earlier post asked ...[text shortened]...
I'm just puzzled as to how you reconcile your two different stances on evil and free-will?
What is there to reconcile? If there is free will, there will be evil.

Hitler will be punished. Just not on yours or anyone else's time but God's.

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Originally posted by Darfius
What is there to reconcile? If there is free will, there will be evil.

Hitler will be punished. Just not on yours or anyone else's time but God's.
With respect you're missing the point of my question, maybe I didn't make it clear enough.

You were specifically making an accusation against a previous poster that he was suggesting that evil should not be punished. (Your "Oh my" comment).

One of your responses - Would Hitler have had free will if God had killed him?

To put this in your terms, did the Midianites have free will when God ordered them killed?

Did Moses have free will when he followed God's order to have them executed?

I'm interested in hearing your interpretation of "free will" in this context. In my opinion, we either have free will or we don't, and I admit I do have trouble myself understanding thsi apparent contradiction.

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Originally posted by PawnCurry
With respect you're missing the point of my question, maybe I didn't make it clear enough.

You were specifically making an accusation against a previous poster that he was suggesting that evil should not be punished. (Your "Oh my" comment).

One of your responses - [b]Would Hitler have had free will if God had killed him?


To put this in you ...[text shortened]... or we don't, and I admit I do have trouble myself understanding thsi apparent contradiction.
[/b]
I got the point, and I thought I answered it.

The Midianites' free will was used to attack the Israelites.

Moses' free will was used to ask for God's will and obey.

Hitler's free will was used to kill Jews.

If God had killed Hitler before he killed the Jews, He would have prevented him from using his free will.

He simply respected the free will decisions of the first two. The Midianites with justice and Moses with guidance.

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Originally posted by Darfius
I got the point, and I thought I answered it.

The Midianites' free will was used to attack the Israelites.

Moses' free will was used to ask for God's will and obey.

Hitler's free will was used to kill Jews.

If God had killed Hitler before he killed the Jews, He would have [b]prevented
him from using his free will.

He simply respect ...[text shortened]... the free will decisions of the first two. The Midianites with justice and Moses with guidance.[/b]
Fair enough, I can see how you can reconcile that from your point of view.

Your explanation doesn't sit very easily with me, I must admit, but that's probably because my own belief is that God would not and does not intervene directly in the material world in this way. Or in any way.

But that's just my own faith, belief and interpreation of God, which is probably why I don't follow any particular religious faith's interpretation of God.

Each to their own!

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Originally posted by Darfius
I got the point, and I thought I answered it.

The Midianites' free will was used to attack the Israelites.

Moses' free will was used to ask for God's will and obey.

Hitler's free will was used to kill Jews.

If God had killed Hitler before he killed the Jews, He would have [b]prevented
him from using his free will.

He simply respect ...[text shortened]... the free will decisions of the first two. The Midianites with justice and Moses with guidance.[/b]
so why did god allow him to be killed and not Hitlers free will to continue doing what he was doing?... why not kill him befor all that crap... why didnt he kill hime when he was born.. oh i forgot.. its all a big plan.. and why do some infants but not Hitler deserve to die?.. hmmmmm...

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Originally posted by Darfius
I got the point, and I thought I answered it.

The Midianites' free will was used to attack the Israelites.

Moses' free will was used to ask for God's will and obey.

Hitler's free will was used to kill Jews.

If God had killed Hitler before he killed the Jews, He would have [b]prevented
him from using his free will.

He simply respect ...[text shortened]... the free will decisions of the first two. The Midianites with justice and Moses with guidance.[/b]
If God had killed Hitler before he killed the Jews, He would have prevented him from using his free will.

How about when natural disasters, random heart attacks, cancer etc. kill people? Aren't those people prevented from exercising free will?