Originally posted by Proper Knob
This means diddly squat to me. I asked if there was any scripture in which Jesus explicitly mentioned homosexuality, all i got was a resounding silence.
I find it curious that you keep claiming that a Christian is someone who follows the teachings of Christ, yet more often that not Paul's writings are wheeled out as evidence. It seems to me that what you actually mean is that a Christian is someone who follows the teachings of Christ and Paul.
dear Noobster it is agreed is it not that Christ was a Hebrew, that he upheld the
Mosaic law, in both word and deed, is it not the case? now i am sure we do not
need to detail the penalties for homosexuality (which Christ upheld) as explicitly
documented in the ordinances of the Mosaic law. This is our first point of
reference. Secondly Christ made reference to the creation, specifically of Adam
and Eve, in which he demonstrated that it was Gods purpose for a man and a
women to be as one, again upholding the natural state of affairs ( i was going to
say traditional, but natural is better). He also made reference to celibacy. He did
not make any allowance for homosexuality and indeed as a Rabbi, that is a teacher
of the Mosiac law, he would naturally have upheld its tenets. What the argument of
those who are trying to establish that it should be acceptable to Christians is based
not upon what is written, but upon what is not explicitly mentioned. They have no
references, no example and no grounds for accepting a practice that is thoroughly
condemned throughout the Bible. Now the question i have asked for a third time,
without adequate reply is, on what basis should a Christian be willing to accept a
practice that is condemned throughout Gods word? On the basis that Christ never
explicitly mentioned it is not good enough, in fact, its simply an excuse.