Originally posted by @sonship
Jesus very explicitly defined His true disciples as those who no longer commit sin. In those verses Jesus was directly and pointedly addressing that topic.
Your interpretation is wrong.
It is self serving of your cryptic atheism.
It is selective.
It is arbitrary and with more than a double standard.
Even for Him to say [b]" IF ... ...[text shortened]... at [b] "Jesus had no disciples if they were not sinless" is TRASH exposition of the Bible.[/b]
It simply means that they would be the disciples He would be most pleased and satisfied with.
This is just nonsense. Like you and others so often do, you take what Jesus actually says and proceed to put words in His mouth. You and I both know that nowhere in that passage does Jesus say that they are "disciples [I} would be most pleased and satisfied with" or anything like it. Do you believe that Jesus wasn't articulate enough to have been able to have said that if that's what He meant?
I know you've been told this often before, but you really need to improve your reading comprehension.I'll lay it all out for you.
John 8
"34Jesus answered them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, everyone who commits sin is the slave of sin."
" 31 ...If you [abide} in My word, then you are truly disciples of Mine; 32 and you will know the truth, and the truth will make you free.”
John 8:31 is a basic conditional statement:
<<IF [condition], THEN [result].
The condition is that one must "abide in [His] word"
IF that condition is fulfilled, THEN there is a compound result:
1) one is a true disciple
2) AND one will know the truth
3) AND one will be made free
In John 8:34 Jesus defines who is not "free", i.e., is a "slave": "everyone who commits sin".
Therefore His true disciples are those who "abide in [His] word", "know the truth" and have been "made free" from committing sin.