Originally posted by genius
i'm sorry for pointing out that it was the chief priests that tried to prosecute him under their law. indeed, they said that he should be killed and would have done so themselves if it wasn't for the Romans. and you claim that it was the romans that had him killed?
pray tell, why am i ignorant? because i haven't studied modern judaism as much as you have?
meh
You’re backpedaling. Words like “they” and “the people” and “the Jews” are easy to throw around.
i think you mean,"They did kill the son of God after all". they know they killed Jesus...
“They KNOW they killed Jesus.” [my caps] KNOW-present tense! As a 20-year-old university student whose first language I assume is English, I conclude that you know exactly what you’re trying to say.
The Sadducees were not “the Jews,” they were one group who represented the temple hierarchy. With a few exceptions, the Sadducees and the Pharisees, for example, were adversaries. The Essenes considered the Sadducees to be illegitimate and corrupt, and the zealots viewed them as collaborators. Get yourself a good study Bible with historical commentary—for the New Testament!
And, by the way, the Romans did kill Jesus,
if the gospels are to be believed; and at least
some of the Sadducees were complicit,
if the gospels are to be believed; and
some Jews (the “crowd” ), incited by the chief priests (Mark), called for Jesus crucifixion,
if the gospels are to be believed.
Further, the
Ioudaion, “Jews,” at least sometimes referred simply to residents of Judea, as opposed to Galilee or the diaspora. Different NT authors seem to use the word in different ways. For example, Nicodemus “a Pharisee and leader of ‘the Jews’” (John 3:1) could not have been a leader of all the Jews because of the enmity between the different Jewish groups. In Acts 21:27, the “Jews of Asia” clearly does not refer to residents of Judea. Etc., etc.
Jesus and his disciples were religious Jews, but they were from Galilee, not Judea. John seems to use “the Jews” for Judeans, for the Jewish religion, and perhaps simply for Jews who were not followers of Jesus—In John 7:13, where it says “Yet no one would speak openly about him for fear of the Jews,” you have to ask yourself who are the non-Jews here? John’s gospel was probably not written much before 90 C.E., and perhaps later. By that time, the temple in Jerusalem had been destroyed, and relations between Jesus’ followers and other Jews had soured considerably, and John may have had some anti-Judaistic animus—his slinging around of the words “the Jews” is at best careless, and who he means must be inferred from context.
Get yourself a good book on New Testament history. This is no longer worth my time.