Originally posted by whodey
Please explain. How is sin considered not to be a moral term theologically?
From the Philokalia (translated by G.E.H Palmer, Philip Sherrard and (now Archbishop) Kallistos Ware), in the translator’s glossary of terms, here is the commentary on the word “sin”—
): the primary meaning of the Greek word is ‘failure’ or, more specifically, “failure to hit the mark’ and so a ‘missing of the mark’, a ‘going astray’ or, ultimately, ‘failure to achieve the purpose for which one is created’. It is closely related, therefore to illusion (q.v.). The translation ‘sin’ should be read with these connotations in mind.
): in our version sometimes also translated ‘delusion’. Literally, wandering astray, deflection from the right path; hence error, beguilement, the acceptance of a mirage mistaken for truth. Cf. the literal sense of sin (q.v.) as ‘missing the mark’.
This is not my only source, but these guys are Greek scholars in the Orthodox tradition. And the root meaning of soterias
(“salvation” ) is to make whole or well, to heal.
With that said, I should add that hamartia
can be due to moral lapse, but it need not be. I don’t think this distinction need contradict, in any way, your understanding of sin as a deviation from agape