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Homosexual Acts and the Categorical Imperative

Homosexual Acts and the Categorical Imperative

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Originally posted by dottewell
You could always read Kant's Groundwork. It has the virtue of being very short.
Or the Prolegomena.

EDIT: Unless we're talking about the same thing.

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Originally posted by lucifershammer
Or the Prolegomena.
Yes, I have read that too, and it has the merit of being much more 'readable' than the 'Critique', but what has that got to do with shirt-lifting?

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Originally posted by Nargaguna
Yes, I have read that too, and it has the merit of being much more 'readable' than the 'Critique', but what has that got to do with shirt-lifting?
Nothing.

UIAMM, Kant's ethical theories were outlined in the Critique of Practical Reason.

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Originally posted by lucifershammer
Nothing.

UIAMM, Kant's ethical theories were outlined in the Critique of Practical Reason.
Yes, do you know I was actually aware of that. However, what has that to do with shirt-lifting?

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Originally posted by Nargaguna
Yes, do you know I was actually aware of that. However, what has that to do with shirt-lifting?
That was mentioned in the Metaphysics of Morals (not the Groundwork), I believe. Along with masturbation (which is worse than suicide, according to Kant).

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Originally posted by dottewell
That was mentioned in the Metaphysics of Morals (not the Groundwork), I believe. Along with masturbation (which is worse than suicide, according to Kant).
Which did he prefer?

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Originally posted by lucifershammer
Or the Prolegomena.

EDIT: Unless we're talking about the same thing.
No.

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Originally posted by Nargaguna
Which did he prefer?
Dunno. He really was quite an odd fellow.

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Originally posted by lucifershammer
Well, no. My point is not that the extinction of the human race is something undesirable in itself (which might be a consideration for imperfect duty, I suppose), but that the extinction of the human race renders the maxim on which homosexual action is based 'meaningless' (because there would be no actors to execute the action). I think this is simila ...[text shortened]... renders property meaningless. Now, I could be wrong here - and I'm open to counter-argument.
because there would be no actors to execute the action

But this is clearly false. Even if adopted universally, there would still be actors and they would be executing. If you are basing your 'self-defeat' on what happens next (ie., the human race then dies out), it is a consequentialist argument.

Under your argument, it would also be morally wrong ('self-defeating' and constituting the violation of a 'perfect duty'😉 for one (gay, straight, makes no difference) to abstain fully from engaging in the act of procreation. One who lives his entire life without engaging in sexual intercourse for the purpose of procreating would be violating his perfect duty. After all, for one to willfully abstain in such a way, he needs to exist; and if such abstinence is adopted universally, the race clearly dies out. Do you really believe that? Since deontology is fundamentally concerned with duties and obligations, is it your position that one has a moral obligation to engage in sexual intercourse aimed at the purpose of procreation?

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Originally posted by LemonJello
[b]because there would be no actors to execute the action

But this is clearly false. Even if adopted universally, there would still be actors and they would be executing. If you are basing your 'self-defeat' on what happens next (ie., the human race then dies out), it is a consequentialist argument.

Under your argument, it would also be morall ...[text shortened]... as a moral obligation to engage in sexual intercourse aimed at the purpose of procreation?[/b]
As interpretation of Kant, I agree; he certainly did not consider homosexual acts some sort of violation of perfect duty.

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Originally posted by dottewell
As interpretation of Kant, I agree; he certainly did not consider homosexual acts some sort of violation of perfect duty.
He did consider it unethical under the second formulation of the CI.

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Originally posted by lucifershammer
He did consider it unethical under the second formulation of the CI.
Treating people as an end? (How ironic that sounds...)

Could you post a reference/quote?

Anyway, the (correct) point LJ is making is that Kant did not consider it a violation of perfect duty, since universalising the maxim does not create a logical contradiction.

EDIT: I seem to recall where he mentioned homosexuality (along with masturbation, "fun sex", etc.) in the MofM, he was concerned about it being anti-natural because it did not lead to the preservation of the species. But a cursory internet search reveals nothing and I don't have the collected works of Kant in the office...

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Originally posted by dottewell
Treating people as an end? (How ironic that sounds...)

Could you post a reference/quote?

Anyway, the (correct) point LJ is making is that Kant did not consider it a violation of perfect duty, since universalising the maxim does not create a logical contradiction.

EDIT: I seem to recall where he mentioned homosexuality (along with masturbation, "fu ...[text shortened]... internet search reveals nothing and I don't have the collected works of Kant in the office...
Google "Kant homosexuality".

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Originally posted by lucifershammer
Google "Kant homosexuality".
I just did. Still can't find any relevant passages written by Kant, just a load of interpretations/commentaries...

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Fascinating. Almost as good as reading the debate about when DrScribbles and rwingett would have a debate. When are you going to get to the point? Oh, I forgot. There isn't one. 🙄