Originally posted by Treytrumpet1
You need to go back and study more closely the evidence for the infallibility of the Scriptures. I am confident that we have the Bible, that which was inspired of God, word for word inspiration (Jer. 1:9; II Sam. 23:2).
I see not one bit of evidence to suggest it is anything other than a work of man.
You have to accept that there are absolutes in this world. Right now I can objectively say that I am sitting down. I am not standing. If someone were to come in the room where I were to say, "I am sitting," like critics of the Bible, they would say, "that's your interpretation." However, it is not only my mere interpretation but it is undeniable truth. Jesus said, "I am the way, the truth and the life, no man comes to the Father but through Me." Therefore the Bible definitively teaches that one must go through the Christ in order to get to the Father. however, some may say, "Well that is your interpretation." They can say that, but that is what the text means. What the text says it means!
I have to do no such thing. Despite the fact that your analogy is rather simplistic, there is the possibility that you are mistaken, hallucinating, dreaming etc. You cannot provide such a thing as an absolute proof of your sitting status, all you can do is continually strive to eradicate possible proofs against it. You, me, everyone, we're all stuck in the subjectivity of reality and whilst the evidence to support your sitting is pretty convincing, there is no absolute, definitive proof of it.
The Bible claims that there is only one God-given interpretation also. "Knowing this first, that no prephecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation. For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were borne along by the Holy Spirit." That is to say that, the Bible has one God-given interpretation. It did not come to us by man's mind; it came to us from God's mind. The Bible is truly the words from God. Also, passages must be used in their context, and used correctly. Yea, even used in the way that God intended for them to be used: "So shall my word be tyhat goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it" (Isa. 55:11)! That means that God put a meaning into a passage and relayed that meaning to us through language. It is truly an abuse of God's word if a passage can mean two contradicting ideas, and both be called "truth".
You're making the mistake of assuming that because the bible claims it was written by god and god is inerrant, that the bible is inerrant.
I realize that you are a skeptic, and there are many external evidences that can prove the Bible to be truly given of Deity.
Actually I'm not, but we'll ignore that for the moment. What are these many external evidences?
What about the historical and geographic accuracy? What about it? How hard is it to record history?
What about fulfilled prophecy? Such as?
What about the unity of the entire Bible? Unity? Hmm, let's see. OT = vengeful, murderous, amoral, inconsistent god. NT = All loving, peace and forgiveness god. Where are your absolutes?
Can these things be accounted for in man's doing?
Yes, how are you so sure they are not?