Originally posted by RJHinds
It appears they have. But you claim to know Greek. So is the word "son"
there in the original Greek text?
P.S. The version of the Greek text I have only speaks of God and it ends
with "his own blood" with no son mentioned.
It does not appear in the original text that is why, unlike the snake translators of
Christendom who sneak their words in, we have and always do put these words in
parenthesis. Never the less we have good grounds for doing so , as these other
translators also recognised.
The Greek words (tou idiou) follow the phrase “with the blood.” The entire
expression could be translated “with the blood of his own.” A noun in the singular
number would be understood after “his own,” most likely God’s closest relative, his
only-begotten Son Jesus Christ. On this point J. H. Moulton in A Grammar of New
Testament Greek, Vol. 1 (Prolegomena), 1930 ed., p. 90, says: “Before leaving
[idios] something should be said about the use of [ho idios] without a noun
expressed. In the papyri we find the singular used thus as a term of endearment to
near relations . . . . In Expos. VI. iii. 277 I ventured to cite this as a possible
encouragement to those (including B. Weiss) who would translate Acts 2028
‘the
blood of one who was his own.’”
Alternately, in The New Testament in the Original Greek, by Westcott and Hort, Vol.,
2, London, 1881, pp. 99, 100 of the Appendix, Hort stated: “it is by no means
impossible that [huiou, of the Son] dropped out after [tou idiou, of his own] at
some very early transcription affecting all existing documents.
Its insertion
leaves the whole passage free from difficulty of any kind.”