Hell = Hades. Hades = Hell. It is a biblical word.
More subterfuge and downright fabrication,
In
Luke 16:21 in my Recovery Version it says
" ... and the rich also died and was buried. And in Hades he lifted up his eyes, being in torment ... "
Answer please:
1.) Where was the rich man when
" he lifted up his eyes" ?
2.) Does this verse mean that his deceased corpse
" lifted up his eyes " while lying decomposing in the grave ?
"And in Hades he lifted up his eyes, being in torment"
Where are the two or more word groups which are pagan in their source:
"And the beggar died, and he was carried away by the angels into Abraham's bosom; and the rich man also died and was buried. And in Hades he lifted up his eyes, being in torment ..." ?
Are the words
"being in torment" inserted into the text by non-Christian pagan editors ? If so which MSS would you point to with its agreed upon date, to prove that
"being in torment" was added latter and is not part of the original Greek text ?
I am not asking you about the vernacular usage of
hell or hades in common street language, ie. "Oh, just go to hell !" Neither am I asking about some sermon you may have heard on, say, Oliver Green's Gospel Hour. I am asking about the Greek text. Where are the words of non-Christian pagan source which were latter insertions in this passage ?
The Ten Occurrences of Hades
“Hades,” perhaps meaning “the unseen place,” occurs ten times in the New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, namely, in Mt 11:23; 16:18; Lu 10:15; 16:23; Ac 2:27, 31; Re 1:18; 6:8; 20:13, 14.
3.) Are you saying that an "unseen place" could not be a place where the rich man
"lifted up his eyes, being in torment"?
4.) Are you saying that it could not be that in an "unseen place" the rich man could say
" ... have mercy on me and send Lazarus to dip the tip of his finger in water and cool my tongue, because I am in anguish in this flame" ?
Is it that no "unseen place" could ever have this being said by anyone ?
5.) Are you saying that Jesus is unrighteously fabricating a lie about something impossible in order to teach on behalf of His Father ? If no such thing could ever happen then it would be unrighteous for Jesus to teach that such a thing happened. That is that some rich man lifted up his eyes in Hades being in torment and actually said
"I am in anguish in this flame".
6.) Was Jesus fooled by pagan religious corruptions ?
In Ac 2:27, Peter’s quotation of Ps 16:10 shows Hades is the equivalent of Sheol and is applied to the common grave of mankind (in contrast with the Greek word taphos, an individual grave)
7.) In
Acts 2:27 where Peter says
"Because you will not abandon my soul in Hades" how can a soul be abandoned in Hades if the soul is non-existent after death ?
8.) How can the soul be abandoned in Hades if Hades only means the physical grave and nothing ever else ?
9.) When the Bible says :
Therefore Sheol has enlarged its throat and opened its mouth without measure; And Jerusalem's splendor, her multitude, her din of revelry and the jubilant within her, descend into it. (Isaiah 5:14)
does this mean a physical grave got wider by so many feet and deeper by so many feet in the ground ? Do you see a grave site growing in size in the ground here ?
In the inspired Scriptures these words are associated with death and the dead, not with life and the living. (Re 20:13) In themselves the words “Sheol” and “Hades” contain no thought or hint of pleasure or pain.
10.) Then for Jesus to teach the world that a man said in Hades
"I am in torment in this flame" is essentially:
a.) Pagan and non-Christian - yes or no ?
b.) Wrong biblically and heterodox - yes or no ?
c.) Unrighteously misrepresentative of God - yes or no?