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Originally posted by @sonshipYes, I referenced to remind you of the purity of God's word and how your own comments fell way short of that.
If you meant the remark to encourage me to obey the new testament exhortation that believers should cleanse themselves from all defilement of flesh and of spirit, I take it the advice.
Even if you meant something else, I would take what is from the Lord and ignore the extras. And what is from the Lord is between me and the Lord.
But I enjoyed the refe ...[text shortened]... wish.
Better still show me by example from your faith in Jesus and your own living unto God.
I did so as I believed, at heart, you want to mirror this purity, not muddy it.
Only pride would have you disagree with this.
Originally posted by @rajk999Is this view based on the Bible or is it your own hypothesis? If it’s based on the Bible, could you provide the reference?
For sure. The Spirit of God is in many people.
Christians dont have a monopoly on that either.
Some have it without knowing it, neither do they need to know anything.
They just have a desire to do good, and refrain from evil.
Originally posted by @romans1009Just one of many :
Is this view based on the Bible or is it your own hypothesis? If it’s based on the Bible, could you provide the reference?
... saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: (Acts 2:17 KJV)
Originally posted by @rajk999Thanks for reply.
Just one of many :
... saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: (Acts 2:17 KJV)
I don’t view Acts 2:17 in the way you do in that I think Peter’s statement was simply saying that God’s Spirit, which was previously available only to Jews, who were His “chosen people,” would, after Christ’s sacrifice on the cross and establishment of the New Covenant, be available to Gentiles as well.
I don’t think “upon” denotes “within,” but is saying it is available to all - Jews and non-Jews (Gentiles) alike.
Originally posted by @romans1009Gods spirit was only available to the Jews? Says who?
Thanks for reply.
I don’t view Acts 2:17 in the way you do in that I think Peter’s statement was simply saying that God’s Spirit, which was previously available only to Jews, who were His “chosen people,” would, after Christ’s sacrifice on the cross and establishment of the New Covenant, be available to Gentiles as well.
I don’t think “upon” denotes “within,” but is saying it is available to all - Jews and non-Jews (Gentiles) alike.
Originally posted by @romans1009Clearly you are assuming. .. thought so.
Pre-Christ’s ministry on earth, the Jews were God’s “chosen people,” and salvation was of the Jews, and God’s Holy Spirit indwelt Jewish prophets.
Does the Bible say or indicate otherwise?
Originally posted by @rajk999Not assuming at all.
Clearly you are assuming. .. thought so.
But maybe I’m not understanding you. Are you disputing that, pre-Christ’s crucifixion and Resurrection, that the Jews were God’s “chosen people?”
Not being argumentative; just trying to clarify what you disagree with.
Originally posted by @ghost-of-a-dukeNice . Hold a mirror to them
Yes, I referenced to remind you of the purity of God's word and how your own comments fell way short of that.
I did so as I believed, at heart, you want to mirror this purity, not muddy it.
Only pride would have you disagree with this.