Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
Would be interested to hear why you think the OP is poorly thought out, rather than just a review of my chosen vocabulary. - If you do indeed see what I was trying to get at, what problem do you have with it? Do you not agree that most religions are seemingly unified in 'reaping what you sow' thinkology? (I made up the last word to give you something ...[text shortened]... the impression that the whole 'Jesus dying for our sins' thing had repaid that particular debt?!
And as an aside, I said 'has paid the price' rather than 'is paying the price' as I was under the impression that the whole 'Jesus dying for our sins' thing had repaid that particular debt?
Evidently your OP is so poorly thought out that even you have no idea of what you're trying to say.
Originally you wrote this:
Does the modern Christian not believe that mankind has paid the price for the original 'bad karma'...
So I questioned what you wrote as did JW and you wrote things such as this:
If a Christian believes they have been born into original sin (as a result of Adam's first sin) is this not a case of paying the price?
By 'paid the price' I meant 'met the consequences' of Adam's original sin, not that man had somehow cleared the debt by himself.
"Christian Dave was born in sin, having paid the price for the original sin committed by Adam."
So evidently you were claiming that you meant that mankind is paying the price for "the original sin committed by Adam".
So I pointed out that what you originally wrote was poorly worded:
It was poorly worded in a couple of ways:
For one, you wrote "has paid the price" rather than "is paying the price" making it sound as if the price has already been paid.
For another, "paid the price" is a poor choice of words given "paid the ransom" rhetoric that is so often cited by "modern Christians" which is about something else altogether.
And now you're claiming the following:
I said 'has paid the price' rather than 'is paying the price' as I was under the impression that the whole 'Jesus dying for our sins' thing had repaid that particular debt?
So now you're trying to claim that what you had in mind was Jesus having paid the price?
First mankind has paid the price? Then mankind is paying the price? And now Jesus has paid the price?
And you're questioning my claim that the OP was poorly thought out? You don't even have any idea of what you were trying to say with the phrase in question.
If you do indeed see what I was trying to get at, what problem do you have with it?
I was speaking of the phrase in question. Of course that was before this latest "explanation".