Spirituality
01 Feb 10
06 Feb 10
Originally posted by karoly aczelOh so your going to the (s)he thing now. Show from the Bible that God is ever referd to as a famale form?
Well I'm not strictly saying God materialized in the flesh. I said this "wino" acted as a godly being.
But having said that what authority do you have to make such a claim?("God has never materialized in the flesh"😉
As far as you know (S)he could of.
06 Feb 10
1 edit
Originally posted by galveston75Show me a passage written by a woman.
Oh so your going to the (s)he thing now. Show from the Bible that God is ever referd to as a famale form?
If you cant find one, then try showing me a woman who was involved in the decision process when it came to choosing the books to be included in the Bible.
06 Feb 10
1 edit
Originally posted by twhiteheadwhat has that got to do with anything? what a total piece of nonsense that is! tell the forum why it would be more valid if it were written by a women than a man? when one reads a piece of literature are we concerned with the content are we not? there are many biblical passages in which the acts and the characters of women are portrayed for their excellence, but you knew that already, didn't you!
Show me a passage written by a woman.
If you cant find one, then try showing me a woman who was involved in the decision process when it came to choosing the books to be included in the Bible.
06 Feb 10
Originally posted by galveston75I don't think it changes the reality if it's a vision or dream. The dream/vision was from God and God wanted Isaiah to see His glory and majesty! Yes I have had very vivid dreams were I see people and colors and all.
Have you never seen a person ever in your dreams? A friend or a family member perhaps?
"A vision is a sight or scene presented to a person's mind by day or night, usually through other then ordinary means, and sometimes while the recipient was in a trance or was dreaming." Insight on the Scriptures. Page 1158.
There are many visions recorded in the ...[text shortened]... on they were actually having the vision about, otherwise it would not be called a "vision."
Now I wanted to know what JW literature you copied and pasted so that maybe I could see it and read too.
Manny
06 Feb 10
Originally posted by galveston75I've always done the (S)he thing. I've never said that God was a male. (Had quite a few little blow ups with daniel58 about it). And I dont take the bible as final authority on anything.
Oh so your going to the (s)he thing now. Show from the Bible that God is ever referd to as a famale form?
And anyway, it is really beside the point...there was a question in my last post🙂
06 Feb 10
Originally posted by menace71Yes Manny the vision was a real vision. But to see God as he did in that vision is impossible to do in the flesh. Again no man may see God in the flesh and live.
I don't think it changes the reality if it's a vision or dream. The dream/vision was from God and God wanted Isaiah to see His glory and majesty! Yes I have had very vivid dreams were I see people and colors and all.
Now I wanted to know what JW literature you copied and pasted so that maybe I could see it and read too.
Manny
The explination is from one of our referance's we have that's called Insight on the Scriptures. It's a 2 volume index.
The explination it gave on what a vision is is pretty much how another book would explain it.
06 Feb 10
Well I guess we can leave it at that. I think God has made himself visible to man in more than one way. Think about this if no man in history was sinless then how could Christ be a perfect sacrifice? If Christ was the archangel? Then how did He take on flesh? Jesus was indeed flesh. No man was ever perfectly sinless of course the bible says Christ was without sin so how can this be?
Manny
07 Feb 10
Originally posted by menace71Actually there have been 3 humans on the earth that did not sin. Of course the first two, Adam and Eve did eventually sin but Jesus never did. But the Bible itself says that he did not sin. You know that.
Well I guess we can leave it at that. I think God has made himself visible to man in more than one way. Think about this if no man in history was sinless then how could Christ be a perfect sacrifice? If Christ was the archangel? Then how did He take on flesh? Jesus was indeed flesh. No man was ever perfectly sinless of course the bible says Christ was without sin so how can this be?
Manny
What does this have to do with humans seeing God?
07 Feb 10
Originally posted by galveston75One actually because as you stated the other two sinned. Because Jesus was no mere Human is all. He was God in the flesh. The perfect sacrifice.
Actually there have been 3 humans on the earth that did not sin. Of course the first two, Adam and Eve did eventually sin but Jesus never did. But the Bible itself says that he did not sin. You know that.
What does this have to do with humans seeing God?
Manny
07 Feb 10
Originally posted by galveston75Wasnt Mary without sin? Or was she naughty after Jesus was born?
Actually there have been 3 humans on the earth that did not sin. Of course the first two, Adam and Eve did eventually sin but Jesus never did. But the Bible itself says that he did not sin. You know that.
What does this have to do with humans seeing God?
07 Feb 10
Originally posted by robbie carrobieIt is natural for men to refer to God as "He" especially in a society where there is significant male domination. I was highlighting the fact that not one single Biblical writer was female and that could be the reason why God is never referred to as "She".
what has that got to do with anything? what a total piece of nonsense that is! tell the forum why it would be more valid if it were written by a women than a man? when one reads a piece of literature are we concerned with the content are we not? there are many biblical passages in which the acts and the characters of women are portrayed for their excellence, but you knew that already, didn't you!
I do know that I have heard God referred to as "She" but never by a man.
Why is my pointing out that there are no women writers in the Bible nor women in the process that produced the Bible described by you as 'total nonsense'?
What is your opinion regarding the sex of God? Does the fact that he is invariably referred to as masculine in the Bible is evidence that he has male organs, or has a masculine character or nature? If God is masculine does that make men superior to women because they are more like God?