11 Aug '05 07:34>1 edit
Originally posted by NemesioThank you for your patient response.
Originally posted by lucifershammer
[b]...though I think the "plainest" meaning is the divinity of Christ...
It is my opinion that our hermeneutic -- one where we essentially begin with
the assumption in mind as a reasonab ...[text shortened]... t is being
written as...ahem, Gospel Truth (yuk, yuk).
Nemesio[/b]
Given, that the authors of the NT documents were Jewish, we need to adopt their hermeneutic, one which was established in them before Jesus came on the scene: they were receptive to the notion that someone could be a prophet (moreso than we are), but they were very resistant to any claims that a person might make about their supposed divinity.
Which makes it even more surprising that the author of John would pen down direct affirmations of the divinity of Christ (e.g. 20:28) - leaving no "wiggle room" to the reader, as it were.
I don't know that they were or weren't (I don't know what letters they are citing), but I do know that many of their letters were composed with the intent of compelling people towards their belief. That is, if Ignatius did indeed write a letter or a passage of a letter that said, 'Jesus is God,' with a great deal of explanation about why he believed such a thing, you can bet it is because there was some other writer who said the opposite.
An assessment of whether this is the case would depend on the audience and the manner of the letter. If it is written to non-Christians, then it is to be expected that it would take on apologetics overtones - after all, non-Christians would be expected to oppose the divinity of Christ. Of course, this does not imply that there was division amongst Christians on the matter. If it is written to Christians, and takes on apologetics overtones, then your inference holds.
If you examine the letters, however, you will see that his mention of the divinity of Christ is not written defensively. You can find the texts from which the Ignatian quotes were taken here:
http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0104.htm
http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0107.htm
In both letters, the mention of Jesus as God occurs in the Address section, a convention at the time (seen in the NT epistles as well). That both Ignatius (Bishop of Antioch) and his reader share belief in the divinity of Christ is a given.
In other epistles from the time, we see the Apostles and Church Fathers going to great lengths to resolve theological disputes (e.g. Paul on Jewish vs. non-Jewish Christians in Romans). Ignatius argues for the orthodox position in Ephesians as well (ch. xviii). Only, he is not arguing against those that claim that Christ was not God, but against those that claim that Christ was never human! This was, of course, the Gnostic/Docetist position.
EDIT: Just reading back over the Jewish hermeneutics you talked about, isn't it even more astounding that Gnosticism/Docetism should precede Arianism?
It would be great if you could cite a few relevant pieces of evidence from the books you mentioned.