Isiaha 9:6

Originally posted by CalJust
I am not arguing for argument's sake either.

I was responding to YOUR thread which states - in detail - how you arrive at your particular interpretation of scripture.

But if you have no response, then that is also OK. None of us are perfect.

Well i would suggest that the primary way of interpreting starts with accurate translation.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
For to us a child is born,
to us a son is given,
and the government will be on his shoulders.
And he will be called
Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God,
Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Isaiah 9:6

The text is rather interesting and is another of those texts used by those who are determined to impose a bias on scripture where none exists i ...[text shortened]... nslated as Almighty God if it is to be assumed that it is made with reference to God the father?

If Jesus is the son, based on your own words, then why would the very next line state "Everlasting Father". Notice, it is not a new sentence, but a continuing thought.

So how can the Son be the Father?

This question is not for you Christians. I want Rob to answer it.

Originally posted by Pudgenik
If Jesus is the son, based on your own words, then why would the very next line state "Everlasting Father". Notice, it is not a new sentence, but a continuing thought.

So how can the Son be the Father? This question is not for you Christians.

again this is an irrelevancy, why don't you address my question before introducing other elements? I will be happy to answer your question when my business has been taken care of. Here it is again,

The phrase that is of interest is 'Mighty God', which is prophetically applied to Jesus. I would like to ask those who know anything about the Bible why the text is not translated as Almighty God if it is to be assumed that it is made with reference to God the father?

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
again this is an irrelevancy, why don't you address my question before introducing other elements? I will be happy to answer your question when my business has been taken care of. Here it is again,

The phrase that is of interest is 'Mighty God', which is prophetically applied to Jesus. I would like to ask those who know anything about the Bible ...[text shortened]... nslated as Almighty God if it is to be assumed that it is made with reference to God the father?

I would have to check the bible, but the question is that of the author. Did Isiaha refer to the Father as Almighty?

Originally posted by Pudgenik
I would have to check the bible, but the question is that of the author. Did Isiaha refer to the Father as Almighty?

Please do some research and get back to me. No the question has to do with translation.

-Removed-

you don't know why the verse is translated as Mighty God and not Almighty God? don't you think you had better find out?

All irrelevancies will be ignored.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
you don't know why the verse is translated as Mighty God and not Almighty God? don't you think you had better find out?

All irrelevancies will be ignored.

I don't think he can........In fact I'm sure about that.

Originally posted by galveston75
I don't think he can........In fact I'm sure about that.

yes and the amazing thing is is that its absolutely central to the belief that Jesus is God. I really wonder if this an instance of simply accepting a concept without actually trying to ascertain whether its Biblical substantiated, one wonder how prevalent this type of unquestioning acceptance is.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
yes and the amazing thing is is that its absolutely central to the belief that Jesus is God. I really wonder if this an instance of simply accepting a concept without actually trying to ascertain whether its Biblical substantiated, one wonder how prevalent this type of unquestioning acceptance is.

Apparently there are no Hebrew scholars here. I can only refer you to the Interlinear Bible at this link:

http://biblehub.com/interlinear/isaiah/9-6.htm

As you can see the Hebrew word with Strong's number 410 translated "the God" and is a noun. Next to it is the Hebrew word with Strong's number 1368 translated "Mighty" and is an adjective. Therefore, it looks like it should be translated "the mighty God" to me. That is the best I can do for you since I am not a Hebrew scholar. Any other problems?

-Removed-

Yep, you can't but yet you still argue like you actually know something.

Originally posted by galveston75
Yep, you can't but yet you still argue like you actually know something.

Well, I apparently know more than you because I am ...

The Moron Instructor

Originally posted by RJHinds
Apparently there are no Hebrew scholars here. I can only refer you to the Interlinear Bible at this link:

http://biblehub.com/interlinear/isaiah/9-6.htm

As you can see the Hebrew word with Strong's number 410 translated "the God" and is a noun. Next to it is the Hebrew word with Strong's number 1368 translated "Mighty" and is an adjective. Therefor ...[text shortened]... to me. That is the best I can do for you since I am not a Hebrew scholar. Any other problems?

I will give you a clue, there are two Hebrew words, one for a mighty god and one for the Almighty God.