Originally posted by vistesd
[b]Not quite sure what a "miracle" then is. I have often thought the concept of a miracle as something inexplicable by science to be incoherent, because even a miracle performed by God would conform to a pattern (such as, heal loving people), and thus be explicable to scientists.
Which would mean that such an event need not point to God.
Panenth ...[text shortened]... at is, what was considered a miracle in the 12th century, say, could be explainable today?[/b]
Which would mean that such an event need not point to God.
Agreed. But I want to point out that it doesn't necessarily follow that God was not the author of the "miracle". I think that science has a sort of doctrine embedded in its methodology that will assume a monist perspective of the universe (not that I'm taking issue with that) so an alternate explanation for any phenomenon, especially a supposedly miraculous one, will always be available.
In this sense, could I substitute the word “sacrament” for “miracle”? (Which, does, in a way, seem to fit with what you said above...) I wonder how far panentheism goes toward “naturalizing” theology, compared to strict theism on the one hand, and monism on the other (considering my question about “transcendent naturalism” versus “supernaturalism” ).
As a Catholic I have certain limits as to how far I will naturalise theology. I do, for instance, distinguish between miracles and sacraments (even though sacraments, as you pointed out, have elements of a miracle) and between God and universe. However, just as Thomas Aquinas' proofs of the existence of God need to be translated into a scientific language after the advent of Newtonian physics, I think that Catholics need to articulate their beliefs in a scientifically orientated culture. I think our idea of transubstantiation needs to be comfortably exiplained in scientific language and we need substitutes for words such as "substance" and "accidents" or in the Trinity concept of "nature" and "person".
Which is really an event of the second type? Is this not subject to the “god of the gaps” problem? That is, what was considered a miracle in the 12th century, say, could be explainable today?
I think there can always be sort of explanation. In the example I imagined, a scientist might apply a sort of anthropic principle and say, 'since it did happen, there is reason for its happening and hence it is not a miracle." So whether something or not is explainable should be irrelevant to whether its a miracle.