1. Standard memberNemesio
    Ursulakantor
    Pittsburgh, PA
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    05 Jan '06 10:37
    Originally posted by The Chess Express
    That’s not what the scripture says. “for everyone that asketh receiveth…” there is no “everyone present” in there. Did it ever occur to you that Jesus may have been telling those present that he was for the whole world?

    I give up. You obviously refuse to understand so I am not going to persist.

    There is every reason to exclude the possibility.

    John 3:17 For God did not send his son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved. (NKJ)


    Um. This is St John's Gospel, written for a proto-Gnostic community. It is a totally
    different text with a totally different Jesus (with contradictions to boot).

    ST. Matthew wrote his gospel about 40-60 AD. This was well after the Jews had rejected Jesus, and well after there were Christians who were not Jewish observers.

    You do not know your Christian history. The Jerusalem Church existed under
    St James's leadership until the fall of the Temple. St Matthew's Gospel, in
    its current state dates within a decade of 80 CE.

    There probably isn’t one, though I’m sure you think every other verse says so.

    Read a book on the construction of the Bible. That's all I can say.

    Ya ever wonder about this one?

    Proverbs 23:9 Speak not in the ears of a fool: for he will despise the wisdom of thy words.

    [b]Edit:
    I'm sure you think it applies to me. 🙂[/b]

    No. I don't wonder about this one. And, no, I don't think that you are a fool. I think
    that you are unaware of text and redactive criticism and have made faulty assumptions
    about the Gospels as a result of your lack of knowledge.

    Nemesio
  2. Standard memberBosse de Nage
    Zellulärer Automat
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    05 Jan '06 10:39
    Originally posted by Nemesio
    You do not know your Christian history.
    Neither do I. Could you suggest a good book on the early Christians?
  3. Colorado
    Joined
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    05 Jan '06 11:17
    Originally posted by Nemesio
    Originally posted by The Chess Express
    That’s not what the scripture says. “for everyone that asketh receiveth…” there is no “everyone present” in there. Did it ever occur to you that Jesus may have been telling those present that he was for the whole world?[/b]

    I give up. You obviously refuse to understand so I am not going to persist.

    Th ...[text shortened]... e faulty assumptions
    about the Gospels as a result of your lack of knowledge.

    Nemesio[/b]
    Um. This is St John's Gospel, written for a proto-Gnostic community. It is a totally
    different text with a totally different Jesus (with contradictions to boot).


    Both ST. Matthew and ST. John were Jesus’ disciples. Do you think that one thought he was for the world and the other thought he was for Jews or Jewish observers only?

    Just out of curiosity, what do you think the crucifixion was all about? Did it never occur? Do you reject that Jesus rose from the dead? Was it only for the Jews? Why do you think Jesus was crucified?

    You do not know your Christian history. The Jerusalem Church existed under
    St James's leadership until the fall of the Temple. St Matthew's Gospel, in
    its current state dates within a decade of 80 CE.


    This doesn’t change the fact that Matthew knew full well that the Jews had rejected Jesus, and not all Christians were Jewish observers.
  4. Standard memberNemesio
    Ursulakantor
    Pittsburgh, PA
    Joined
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    06 Jan '06 08:31
    Originally posted by The Chess Express
    Both ST. Matthew and ST. John were Jesus’ disciples. Do you think that one thought he was for the world and the other thought he was for Jews or Jewish observers only?

    If this is true, why does one have the overturning of the money tables at the
    end of Jesus's ministry, and the other has it at the beginning? Why does one
    record all manner of miracles and the other only a few (only one of which
    overlaps)? Why does one record a brief discourse at the Last Supper, but includes
    the meal, but the other has a huge discourse, footwashing, but no meal?

    Why does one have Jesus crucified after the Passover, and the other before?
    (Keep in mind that this is not the Diaspora...there is only one Passover.)

    How can you explain two entirely different presentations of Jesus's ministry,
    from the first moment of Jesus's existence to the discourse with Pilate?

    The author of St Matthew was not a witness. He never claims it, you will
    notice. It was Papias, in about 130 CE who stated that this Gospel was
    written by a disciple, but this is not credible, since he obviously used and
    edited St Mark's Gospel in order to compile his own account.

    If you can prove that the author of St Matthew was an eye-witness, please,
    by all means, proceed.

    Just out of curiosity, what do you think the crucifixion was all about? Did it never occur? Do you reject that Jesus rose from the dead? Was it only for the Jews? Why do you think Jesus was crucified?

    I believe that Jesus was crucified because the Roman authorities saw Him as
    an insurrectional threat. I believe it occurred. As for rising from the dead, my
    opinion on that is far too complicated and personal for a website such as this.

    This doesn’t change the fact that Matthew knew full well that the Jews had rejected Jesus, and not all Christians were Jewish observers.

    Some Jews rejected Jesus. But St Matthew's audience -- indeed the first
    years of the Church -- was mostly Jewish. The Gentile component of Christianity
    was the minority until the Jerusalem Church was wiped out.

    Please, don't take my word for it. Read a book on the history of the early Church.

    Nemesio
  5. Colorado
    Joined
    11 May '04
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    11981
    06 Jan '06 22:39
    Originally posted by Nemesio
    Originally posted by The Chess Express
    [b]Both ST. Matthew and ST. John were Jesus’ disciples. Do you think that one thought he was for the world and the other thought he was for Jews or Jewish observers only?


    If this is true, why does one have the overturning of the money tables at the
    end of Jesus's ministry, and the other has it at the beg ...[text shortened]... se, don't take my word for it. Read a book on the history of the early Church.

    Nemesio[/b]
    Well, thanks for the information. I’ll do some research. We may not agree on much when it comes to the scripture, but I appreciate your point of view.

    God bless.
  6. Joined
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    12 Jan '06 11:18
    Listed in a previous post:
    "The Eleven Satanic Rules of the Earth"
    1 and 2 are clear enough.
    3. When in another’s lair, show him respect or else do not go there.
    This is his base of power. It would be unwise to be hostile there.
    4. If a guest in your lair annoys you, treat him cruelly and without mercy.
    You hold the power here, use it.
    5. Do not make sexual advances unless you are given the mating signal.
    No need to waste your efforts on fruitless activities. This certainly does not imply rape.
    6. Do not take that which does not belong to you unless it is a burden to the other person and he cries out to be relieved.
    A fool and his money are soon parted. Enough said...
    9. Do not harm little children.
    10. Do not kill non-human animals unless you are attacked or for your food.
    Human animals on the other hand are fair game, but note the exception in #9.
    11. When walking in open territory, bother no one. If someone bothers you, ask him to stop. If he does not stop, destroy him.
    This is clear enough.
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