05 Jan '06 10:37>
Originally posted by The Chess Express
That’s not what the scripture says. “for everyone that asketh receiveth…” there is no “everyone present” in there. Did it ever occur to you that Jesus may have been telling those present that he was for the whole world?
I give up. You obviously refuse to understand so I am not going to persist.
There is every reason to exclude the possibility.
John 3:17 For God did not send his son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved. (NKJ)
Um. This is St John's Gospel, written for a proto-Gnostic community. It is a totally
different text with a totally different Jesus (with contradictions to boot).
ST. Matthew wrote his gospel about 40-60 AD. This was well after the Jews had rejected Jesus, and well after there were Christians who were not Jewish observers.
You do not know your Christian history. The Jerusalem Church existed under
St James's leadership until the fall of the Temple. St Matthew's Gospel, in
its current state dates within a decade of 80 CE.
There probably isn’t one, though I’m sure you think every other verse says so.
Read a book on the construction of the Bible. That's all I can say.
Ya ever wonder about this one?
Proverbs 23:9 Speak not in the ears of a fool: for he will despise the wisdom of thy words.
[b]Edit: I'm sure you think it applies to me. 🙂[/b]
No. I don't wonder about this one. And, no, I don't think that you are a fool. I think
that you are unaware of text and redactive criticism and have made faulty assumptions
about the Gospels as a result of your lack of knowledge.
Nemesio
That’s not what the scripture says. “for everyone that asketh receiveth…” there is no “everyone present” in there. Did it ever occur to you that Jesus may have been telling those present that he was for the whole world?
I give up. You obviously refuse to understand so I am not going to persist.
There is every reason to exclude the possibility.
John 3:17 For God did not send his son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through Him might be saved. (NKJ)
Um. This is St John's Gospel, written for a proto-Gnostic community. It is a totally
different text with a totally different Jesus (with contradictions to boot).
ST. Matthew wrote his gospel about 40-60 AD. This was well after the Jews had rejected Jesus, and well after there were Christians who were not Jewish observers.
You do not know your Christian history. The Jerusalem Church existed under
St James's leadership until the fall of the Temple. St Matthew's Gospel, in
its current state dates within a decade of 80 CE.
There probably isn’t one, though I’m sure you think every other verse says so.
Read a book on the construction of the Bible. That's all I can say.
Ya ever wonder about this one?
Proverbs 23:9 Speak not in the ears of a fool: for he will despise the wisdom of thy words.
[b]Edit: I'm sure you think it applies to me. 🙂[/b]
No. I don't wonder about this one. And, no, I don't think that you are a fool. I think
that you are unaware of text and redactive criticism and have made faulty assumptions
about the Gospels as a result of your lack of knowledge.
Nemesio