Study your Bible to know who God is.

Originally posted by RJHinds
I have not ignored the Greek grammatical structure. I have even consulted
books on grammer of New testament Greek and found nothing that convinced
me that you are correct in your translation. But I did find things that
convinced me that you were wrong. And besides that the text does not
make sense in English if translated the way you said because the ...[text shortened]... So are you saying
there is a false god with the true God? What are you saying in plain english.

yes you have ignored it and continue to ignore it.

1.The terms 'theos', translated as 'a god' because its is an indefinite predicate noun,
FACT
2.When translating an indefinite predicate noun from Greek into English we add 'a,
an', FACT
3.You were asked to produce the definite article from the Greek text, Luke 20:38,
you cannot, because it does not exist, FACT

which one of these FACTS seem to you to be inaccurate? I want to hear you say it?
which one? I even numbered them for your convenience.

whatever your reason are for disputing theses Grammatical FACTS, whether
theologically or because of your bias, they find no basis in the GREEK TEXT,
because GREEK is not English, FACT, of which you seem to be blissfully unaware,
and are obstinately wasting our time with these quite frankly stupid excuses.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
yes you have ignored it and continue to ignore it.

1.The terms 'theos', translated as 'a god' because its is an indefinite predicate noun,
FACT
2.When translating an indefinite predicate noun from Greek into English we add 'a,
an', FACT
3.You were asked to produce the definite article from the Greek text, Luke 20:38,
you cannot, because i ...[text shortened]... y unaware,
and are obstinately wasting our time with these quite frankly stupid excuses.

You stating something is a fact without giving any reference or explaining
why it is a fact will not work with me. You should know by now that I am
not stupid. Give some reliable reference that make sense is all I ask.

Originally posted by RJHinds
You stating something is a fact without giving any reference or explaining
why it is a fact will not work with me. You should know by now that I am
not stupid. Give some reliable reference that make sense is all I ask.

I have continually provided reference through out this thread, i even gave you a
book title and the page number, New testament Greek, by D.F Hudson, page 20,
Lesson five.

Now if you will kindly address the questions that were put to you, you can
demonstrate why you find them erroneous, otherwise, you are being called out for
the time waster that you evidently purport to be. The arguments have been
explained, with reference and example on numerous occasions and i ask on any
member of the forum to adjudicate whether or not these things are so, because
clearly, you are incapable.

Again, which of these is erroneous,

1.The terms 'theos', translated as 'a god' because within the context its is an
indefinite predicate noun, FACT
2.When translating an indefinite predicate noun from Greek into English we add 'a,
an', FACT
3.You were asked to produce the definite article from the Greek text, Luke 20:38,
you cannot, because it does not exist, FACT

lets see if you can do better without your petty excuses. which one is erroneous.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
yes you have ignored it and continue to ignore it.

1.The terms 'theos', translated as 'a god' because its is an indefinite predicate noun,
FACT
2.When translating an indefinite predicate noun from Greek into English we add 'a,
an', FACT
3.You were asked to produce the definite article from the Greek text, Luke 20:38,
you cannot, because i ...[text shortened]... y unaware,
and are obstinately wasting our time with these quite frankly stupid excuses.

1. There is no proof the "Theos" is indefinite because the absence of the
definite article does does not prove it is indefinite. A predicate noun can
be definite or indefinite without the definite article. It depends on if the
noun refers to s specific (definite) person or thing. In this case it does,
because it refers to the definite pronoun "estin" (he is), which you have
admitted is the subject. I have already explained that this definite pronoun
refers back to the previous sentence and is a substitute for the noun "GOD".

The construction of the Greek in the sentence of Luke 20:38 does not
have the definite article before "Theos" because that might make it the
subject of the sentence and you have admitted that the subject of the
sentence is "estin" (he is). Sometimes a subject of a sentence is identified
by the presence of the definite article. But the parallel text in Matthew 22:32
does have the article indicating it is a definite noun and should be translated
"God" not "a god". So the God in Matthew 22:32 is the same God as in
Luke 20:38 so it is logical they should be translated the same in English.

Point 2. and 3. I agree with.

Number 1 is inaccurate.

Originally posted by RJHinds
1. There is no proof the "Theos" is indefinite because the absence of the
definite article does does not prove it is indefinite. A predicate noun can
be definite or indefinite without the definite article. It depends on if the
noun refers to s specific (definite) person or thing. In this case it does,
because it refers to the definite pronoun "estin" d the same in English.

Point 2. and 3. I agree with.

Number 1 is inaccurate.

the context tells us that its an indefinite predicate noun, not whether the definite
article exists or does not exist, was this not made clear to you, with reference?
estin is not a definite pronoun, its a verb,

again

he is a doctor

subject 'he', verb 'is' , predicate 'a doctor'

he is a god,

subject 'he', verb 'is', predicate 'a god'

it has nothing to do with the preceding clause, its a clause on its own right, for
goodness sake i cannot make it any simpler than it is. You have explained nothing
that can be remotely termed anything that finds itself within the bounds of Greek
grammatical structure, your content to slither around and make stuff up as you go
along, as if Greek was English, which its not. why this difference should yet evade
you, I have no idea,

1 'theos', within the context is an indefinite predicate noun, FACT. Why? because it
completes the sense of the sentence and it predicates, or tells us something about
the subject, also a FACT.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
the context tells us that its an indefinite predicate noun, not whether the definite
article exists or does not exist, was this not made clear to you, with reference?
estin is not a definite pronoun, its a verb,

again

he is a doctor

subject 'he', verb 'is' , predicate 'a doctor'

he is a god,

subject 'he', verb 'is', predicate ' entence and it predicates, or tells us something about
the subject, also a FACT.

Now slow down here a bit. I know it is a verb but it represents "He is" in
English if you had paid close attention to what I wrote. And the "He" part
of the verb represents a definite pronoun not an indefinite pronoun. Get it?
Look at Matthew 22:32 also.

P.S. It is the indefinite noun I object to, not that it is a predicate noun.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
the context tells us that its an indefinite predicate noun, not whether the definite
article exists or does not exist, was this not made clear to you, with reference?
estin is not a definite pronoun, its a verb,

again

he is a doctor

subject 'he', verb 'is' , predicate 'a doctor'

he is a god,

subject 'he', verb 'is', predicate ' ...[text shortened]... entence and it predicates, or tells us something about
the subject, also a FACT.

I explained to you why I think it is a definite noun. What is your
reason for saying it is an indefinite noun, if it has nothing to do
with absence of the article?

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
the context tells us that its an indefinite predicate noun, not whether the definite
article exists or does not exist, was this not made clear to you, with reference?
estin is not a definite pronoun, its a verb,

again

he is a doctor

subject 'he', verb 'is' , predicate 'a doctor'

he is a god,

subject 'he', verb 'is', predicate ' ...[text shortened]... entence and it predicates, or tells us something about
the subject, also a FACT.

I also agree that if you just look at that one sentence and that is all you
have to go on that you could translate it the way you did because you
would not know who "He" is. But we do have the preceding sentence
that tell us who "He" is and "He is God". He is not just any god of the
pagans or other false gods. He is the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.

Originally posted by RJHinds
Now slow down here a bit. I know it is a verb but it represents "He is" in
English if you had paid close attention to what I wrote. And the "He" part
of the verb represents a definite pronoun not an indefinite pronoun. Get it?
Look at Matthew 22:32 also.

P.S. It is the indefinite noun I object to, not that it is a predicate noun.

we are not talking of English, we are talking of Greek, do you understand the difference?

Originally posted by RJHinds
I explained to you why I think it is a definite noun. What is your
reason for saying it is an indefinite noun, if it has nothing to do
with absence of the article?

i know what you think, it simply has no basis in the Greek text.

Originally posted by RJHinds
I also agree that if you just look at that one sentence and that is all you
have to go on that you could translate it the way you did because you
would not know who "He" is. But we do have the preceding sentence
that tell us who "He" is and "He is God". He is not just any god of the
pagans or other false gods. He is the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.

Again, you have no basis for ignoring the sentence structure as it is, both the absence
of the definite article and the context make 'theos', an indefinite predicative noun.
This is the last time i am going to say it.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Again, you have no basis for ignoring the sentence structure as it is, both the absence
of the definite article and the context make 'theos', an indefinite predicative noun.
This is the last time i am going to say it.

All I want you to do is show me that the noun has to be indefinite
and it can not be definite. Then also why in Matthew 22:32 is the
same God of the dead definite and not indefinite. Does not the
Holy Bible have to agree with itself?

P.S. I am beginning to think you don't know the Greek as well as you have
made out that you do.

Originally posted by RJHinds
All I want you to do is show me that the noun has to be indefinite
and it can not be definite. Then also why in Matthew 22:32 is the
same God of the dead definite and not indefinite. Does not the
Holy Bible have to agree with itself?

I already have, about, ten times now, i will not do so again.

Originally posted by robbie carrobie
I already have, about, ten times now, i will not do so again.

Okay, now I am sure you can't. I am right after all. HalleluYah.

Originally posted by RJHinds
Okay, now I am sure you can't. I am right after all. HalleluYah.

sure your right, you have ignored the actual sacred text as it appears in the base texts,
ignored Greek grammatical structure, ignored translations which acknowledge the
indefinite nature of the predicate, you have ignored all examples demonstrating why its
an indefinite predicate noun, you have ignored all reason demonstrating why its an
indefinite predicate noun, in fact, you have behaved like every other trinitarian i have
known, congratulations, i couldn't have done it without you. If blatant ignorance is
what makes you happy, then who am i to stop your celebrating it.