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Study your Bible to know who God is.

Spirituality

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Originally posted by RJHinds
I think you should stop using the word Jehovah for God. It is known now
that it is not God's name. It never was and it will never be His name.
We know with absolute certainty that God's name is YH pronounced Yah
as in Hallelu Yah.
Actually we don't know at all the actual pronunciation of the NAME and Jews did not dare say it for fear of saying it in vain. We can almost without a doubt know that Jehovah is not it at all.




Manny

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Just taking an outward view of this post. Really all I see is a bunch of bickering idiots LOL I know everyone has the truth!!!! I just see the futility of it is all.
BTW I've been one of those idiots



Manny

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Originally posted by menace71
Actually we don't know at all the actual pronunciation of the NAME and Jews did not dare say it for fear of saying it in vain. We can almost without a doubt know that Jehovah is not it at all.




Manny
what? you dont know the actual pronunciation, but you know without a doubt what its
not? this has to be candidate for contradiction of the year. But wait, your a trinitarian,
i forgot, logic and reason doesn't apply in your case, how silly of me to think that it
might apply here also.

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Originally posted by RJHinds
I POSTED THE FOLLOWING BEFORE BUT NOT TOGETHER BECAUSE I DID NOT
KNOW ANYTHING ABOUT DR. BEDUHN AT THE TIME I POSTED MY ANALYSIS
OF JOHN 1:1. I POST IT AGAIN TO SHOW YOU HOW DR. BEDUHN AGREES
WITH ME.

From my study of this issue I would point out some things.
1. Definite nouns refer to a specific, identifiable person or thing.
In either language,it ...[text shortened]... But definitely not, "the Word was God."
I have no problem with the word being divine, why you should think i do , i cannot say. I have a problem with 'the word', being termed God and being translated by snake trinitarian translators as 'God', in fact making an anarthrous predicate noun to appear definite. I have already stated that a predicate belongs to a particular class, tells us something about the characteristic of the subject, 'divine', would be appropriate in this instance, as would 'a god'. We have simply rendered the verse according to its formal structure and not employed dynamic equivalence, which is what 'divine', is. Please tell the forum why the sahidic coptic text dated to the third century, a translation from a much earlier Greek autograph should render the verse as 'a god'. Please tell us why?

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4 edits
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-Removed-
😴 why is he not termed the Almighty God? we have already established that Jesus is a Mighty God, we even translated John 1:1 as 'a god', why not the Almighty?

(Philippians 2:5-6) . . .Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus,
 who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure,
namely, that he should be equal to God.

was Paul lying? either he is lying or you are lying, which one is it?

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1 edit
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-Removed-
there's nothing to wriggle, i know you dont know anything about the Hebrew terms
almighty and mighty, you were asked before, you produced , nothing, i dont see why
you will do anything different here also, so which is it, are you lying or is Paul lying?

(Philippians 2:5-6) . . .Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus
, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure,
namely, that he should be equal to God.

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whats up? Jaw on the floor? cat got tongue? piano fall from sky?

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Originally posted by menace71
Actually we don't know at all the actual pronunciation of the NAME and Jews did not dare say it for fear of saying it in vain. We can almost without a doubt know that Jehovah is not it at all.




Manny
you can learn how to pronounce words correctly at these two websites:

http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/hallelujah

http://www.howjsay.com/index.php?word=yahweh&submit=Submit

Click on the speaker symbol on the first and mouse over the word on
the second website.

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Originally posted by menace71
Just taking an outward view of this post. Really all I see is a bunch of bickering idiots LOL I know everyone has the truth!!!! I just see the futility of it is all.
BTW I've been one of those idiots



Manny
Apparently you still do not know the truth. You did not seek hard enough.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
I have no problem with the word being divine, why you should think i do , i cannot say. I have a problem with 'the word', being termed God and being translated by snake trinitarian translators as 'God', in fact making an anarthrous predicate noun to appear definite. I have already stated that a predicate belongs to a particular class, tells us some ...[text shortened]... uch earlier Greek autograph should render the verse as 'a god'. Please tell us why?
I am telling you that your understanding is not complete and that we
are translating into English. You apparently do not know English
grammer very well.

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Originally posted by robbie carrobie
I have no problem with the word being divine, why you should think i do , i cannot say. I have a problem with 'the word', being termed God and being translated by snake trinitarian translators as 'God', in fact making an anarthrous predicate noun to appear definite. I have already stated that a predicate belongs to a particular class, tells us some ...[text shortened]... uch earlier Greek autograph should render the verse as 'a god'. Please tell us why?
I suppose the translators did not understand the context of the text they
were translating or perhaps the did not understand the Greek that well
either. But the translation "the Word was Deity" seems to be the best
translation to me, because it carries with it the full meaning of what John
says about the Word in later verses and avoids modalism.

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You mean 'grammar'?

lol

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Originally posted by RJHinds
I suppose the translators did not understand the context of the text they
were translating or perhaps the did not understand the Greek that well
either. But the translation "the Word was Deity" seems to be the best
translation to me, because it carries with it the full meaning of what John
says about the Word in later verses and avoids modalism.
the translators did not understand either Greek, the international language of the day,
or their own language, but you, who can read neither are in a position to point it out,
thanks for once again demonstrating your prejudice. Do you always profess to know
what you are talking about while in fact knowing nothing at all? why would you do
that? If you don't know what you are talking about, just try to remain quiet, its easy,
all you need to state is, i am sorry, i have no knowledge of this subject and all will be
well, but to act like a pompous windbag to preserve you ego is just asking for it.

So which is it, the Coptic translators did not understand Greek or that they did not
understand their own language.

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