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-Removed-I am cult, LOL, a one man cult, cool i always wanted to have a cult following, will you
be my disciple? After all you've been professing Christianity and dont know how to act
like a Christian, maybe i can help you, something is better than nothing. Maybe i
should change my name to Cult Eastwood? something groovy and eye catching, Shaun
the Cult, how about that?
Originally posted by robbie carrobieTrue, Hebrew is not English and it is not any of those other languages
irrelevant, Hebrew is not English. The divine name is preserved in scripture and is not
an equivalent of anything other than the divine name.
you quoted from either. You said, "the ancient name of God is represented
by the four Hebrew consonants JHVH or YHWH." JHVH cannot be true
because of the reason pointed out by my references.
What is the Watchtower explanation for the following verse?
Sing unto God, sing praises to his name: extol him that rideth upon the
heavens by his name JAH, and rejoice before him. (Psalms 68:4 KJV)
http://interlinearbible.org/psalms/68-4.htm
We now know that JAH can not be correct because there was no "J".
The World English Bible corrects this below:
Sing to God! Sing praises to his name! Extol him who rides on the clouds:
to Yah, his name! Rejoice before him! (Psalms 68:4 World English Bible)
The following is a link to parallel translations which sometimes
substitute "LORD" for the name of God which the Psalm gives in the
shortened form "YH" pronounced "Yah" as in "hallelujah".
http://bible.cc/psalms/68-4.htm
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Originally posted by RJHindsYou're logic is off....
True, Hebrew is not English and it is not any of those other languages
you quoted from either. You said, "the ancient name of God is represented
by the four Hebrew consonants JHVH or YHWH." JHVH cannot be true
because of the reason pointed out by my references.
What is the Watchtower explanation for the following verse?
Sing unto God, sing praises ed form "YH" pronounced "Yah" as in "hallelujah".
http://bible.cc/psalms/68-4.htm
There being no J in English doesn't necessarily mean there is no Hebrew equivalent to J.
Originally posted by RJHindsYou are trying to argue that the phoneme /J/ did not exist before the grapheme "J" which is absolute nonsense.
You did not read my reference.
Webster's New International Dictionary explains:
J is a comparatively late variant from the Latin I which was used
indifferently as a vowel or consonant, its consonantal value being that of
English Y in yet. The form J was developed from i during the Middle Ages,
and it was long used in certain positions in t ...[text shortened]... from old French.
There was no such letter as a "J" at the time of the Messiah Yahshua.
The phoneme /J/ was most popularly represented by "I" but I'm sure other languages had other devices.
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Originally posted by wolfgang59This being a more eloquent way of stating that which I have already stated. 😛
You are trying to argue that the phoneme /J/ did not exist before the grapheme "J" which is absolute nonsense.
The phoneme /J/ was most popularly represented by "I" but I'm sure other languages had other devices.
Originally posted by wolfgang59though he may have garbled the message a tad there, essentially he is correct: ancient Hebrew had no "J" sound. Therefor it is innacurate to claim the name of God as Jehovah. Yehovah would be closer, but even in that scholars are not sure of the consanants.
You are trying to argue that the phoneme /J/ did not exist before the grapheme "J" which is absolute nonsense.
The phoneme /J/ was most popularly represented by "I" but I'm sure other languages had other devices.
Originally posted by DowardThe point here for all to see is from our viewpoint we do use his name even if it may be pronounced differently or even if it's not entirly correct. But as many here do, they just ignor it and even make up something else to use in it's place.
though he may have garbled the message a tad there, essentially he is correct: ancient Hebrew had no "J" sound. Therefor it is innacurate to claim the name of God as Jehovah. Yehovah would be closer, but even in that scholars are not sure of the consanants.
We take the scripture in the Bible that says: "only those who call on the name of the LORD will have life." And another scripture says: "he would have a people for his name".
But when ones refuse to use it they are excluding themselves from what these and many more scriptures are saying.
We believe the Bible when it says we can have a personal relationship with Jehovah thru prayer, and Jesus gave us that model and that model prayer says to use God's name...Jehovah, not Jesus's until the conclusion of the prayer.
Originally posted by DowardIts irrelevant how its was pronounced in Hebrew, after all, do you speak French with a
though he may have garbled the message a tad there, essentially he is correct: ancient Hebrew had no "J" sound. Therefor it is innacurate to claim the name of God as Jehovah. Yehovah would be closer, but even in that scholars are not sure of the consanants.
French accent? German with a German accent? I certainly dont speak Hindi with an
Indian accent. Once again, simply because there is no J in Hebrew does not mean that
it cannot find an equivalence in another language, as has been pointed out through the
posting of its pronunciation elsewhere. Its simply silly to state that it should be
pronounced the same way.
Originally posted by tomtom232Did you read this link I gave earlier? What about the equivalent
You're logic is off....
There being no J in English doesn't necessarily mean there is no Hebrew equivalent to J.
sound in Hebrew? Why is the "j" in hallelujah not pronounced
like the "j" in jar but like a "Y"?
Here is the link again:
http://www.yaim.org/web/literature/sacred-names/themissingj.html
Originally posted by RJHindsWhy is it then spelled with a j in english and not with a y?
Did you read this link I gave earlier? What about the equivalent
sound in Hebrew? Why is the "j" in hallelujah not pronounced
like the "j" in jar but like a "Y"?
Here is the link again:
http://www.yaim.org/web/literature/sacred-names/themissingj.html
Yehova or Jehova. Pronounce it however you like but an argument based on the letter "J" itself is, in fact, baseless. You are mistaking the letter for a pronunciation.
Originally posted by tomtom232If you don't want to read the link, fine. I have nothing more to
Why is it then spelled with a j in english and not with a y?
Yehova or Jehova. Pronounce it however you like but an argument based on the letter "J" itself is, in fact, baseless. You are mistaking the letter for a pronunciation.
say to you. You can continue to remain ignorant.
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Originally posted by RJHinds
If you don't want to read the link, fine. I have nothing more to
say to you. You can continue to remain ignorant.
Either symbol (J,I) used initially generally had the consonantal sound of Y as in year
Usually had the sound of Y. This means that you are not arguing the spelling but the sound of the name.
That means the author of this site is confusing the same thing you are.
The Third Commandment expressly forbids misusing the sacred Name and "bringing it to naught."
The name Jehovah is a mistake brought on by copyists, who deliberately added the vowels from "Adonai" to the Tetragrammaton (the Heavenly Father's Name in Hebrew Scriptures) in an effort to warn the reader not to enunciate the name they believed was too sacred to voice.
These quotes bring to light what you should be arguing and not the validity of the letter J. You are not very good at debate RJH.... lol I have to argue your side for you.