1. Standard memberRJHinds
    The Near Genius
    Fort Gordon
    Joined
    24 Jan '11
    Moves
    13644
    23 Apr '11 05:13
    Originally posted by robbie carrobie
    During the 20th year of his reign (455 B.C.E.), Artaxerxes Longimanus granted
    permission to Nehemiah to return to Jerusalem to rebuild the walls and gates of the
    city. (Ne 2:1-8) Because this is referred to at Daniel 9:25 as relating to the time of
    the promised coming of the Messiah, the date of Artaxerxes 20th year is very
    important.

    we h ...[text shortened]... Temple and to rebuild the city
    walls

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Artaxerxes_I_of_Persia
    Did you not read Ezra chapter 7 as I mentioned. The 8th verse
    states that it was in the "seventh year of the king" that Ezra
    went to Jerusalem from Babylon with the decree from Artaxerxes.
    What was in the decree begins in verse 11. Notice verse 23 -
    "Whatever is commanded by the God of heaven, let it be done..."
    The intention of Artaxerxes is that Ezra and his people return to
    Jerusalem, not only to worship God, but also to live there as God
    commanded them to do. In verse 25, Artaxeres gives Ezra the
    authority to appoint magistrates and judges. Why would it be
    necessary to start a goverment if they were only going there
    to worship? You will have to read all of Ezra and Nehemiah to get
    the full picture of all that was going on at this time. As they were
    trying to rebuild they were constantly be attached. That is why
    the prophecy says, "even in times of distress". In Nehemiah 1:3
    the walls along with the gates that they had build had been destroyed
    by these attackers. This is why Nehemiah went to the King to get help
    and protection and ask for letters that specified his needs in rebuilding
    the walls and the city. Some believe these letters were the decree
    spoken of in the prophecy in Daniel 9:25 and that is why they use the
    twentieth year of the King to start the prophecy.
  2. Account suspended
    Joined
    26 Aug '07
    Moves
    38239
    23 Apr '11 06:351 edit
    Originally posted by RJHinds
    Did you not read Ezra chapter 7 as I mentioned. The 8th verse
    states that it was in the "seventh year of the king" that Ezra
    went to Jerusalem from Babylon with the decree from Artaxerxes.
    What was in the decree begins in verse 11. Notice verse 23 -
    "Whatever is commanded by the God of heaven, let it be done..."
    The intention of Artaxerxes is that Ezra aniel 9:25 and that is why they use the
    twentieth year of the King to start the prophecy.
    yes i understand all of that, its not in question, it is the date of the twentieth year of the
    rule of Artaxerxes that i am questioning. wikipedia states 445BCE, you state 457BCE
    and we state, 455BCE.
  3. Cape Town
    Joined
    14 Apr '05
    Moves
    52945
    23 Apr '11 07:21
    Originally posted by RJHinds
    If you have any knowledge of what Jesus the Christ had to say,
    you apparently did not understand the meaning of what He said.
    I understand you are an atheist. That's enough proof for me that
    you lack understanding. Judge yourself.
    And your behavior on this forum is enough for me to to know that you either did not understand what he had to say or have chosen to ignore it. Don't judge yourself - you don't have the integrity to do so fairly.
  4. Standard memberRJHinds
    The Near Genius
    Fort Gordon
    Joined
    24 Jan '11
    Moves
    13644
    23 Apr '11 08:19
    Originally posted by robbie carrobie
    yes i understand all of that, its not in question, it is the date of the twentieth year of the
    rule of Artaxerxes that i am questioning. wikipedia states 445BCE, you state 457BCE
    and we state, 455BCE.
    I stated 457 B.C. as the 7th year not the 20th year.
    The decree was issued in in the 7th year and that is the
    beginning of the prophecy when the decree was issued.
    And as I stated before the year the king began to rule is
    called the "beginning of the kingship" but since it did not
    begin at the beginning of the year it was counted as the
    last year of the previous king. And even though He started
    his reign in 464 B.C. it was not a complete year so that
    year was counted as the last year of the previous king.
    So Artaxerxes' first complete year was 463 B.C. Therefore,
    his 7th year was 457 B.C. His 20th year would be 444 B.C.
    not 445 B.C. Maybe Wikipedia counts the year he began to reign
    464 B.C. as his first year, but that is not how it was done then.
    If you counted the last year of the previous king as the first year
    of the next king, the total years of reign would appear one year
    longer for each king. Do you understand now? The 20th year
    was when Nehemiah went back to the King and got those letters,
    it was not the year the decree was issued. The decree was issued
    in the book of Ezra chapter 7 as I said twice before.
  5. Standard memberRJHinds
    The Near Genius
    Fort Gordon
    Joined
    24 Jan '11
    Moves
    13644
    23 Apr '11 09:13
    Originally posted by robbie carrobie
    yes i understand all of that, its not in question, it is the date of the twentieth year of the
    rule of Artaxerxes that i am questioning. wikipedia states 445BCE, you state 457BCE
    and we state, 455BCE.
    I looked up the wikipedia article to see what they did. They are using
    a date one year earlier than mine for the beginning of the kingship.
    I also stummbled across this interpretation of the prophecy in Daniel
    in my search for dates given for Artaxerxes date of reign.

    http://star.wind.mystarband.net/bib/daniel_69_weeks_proof.html#issued

    You might want to check it out but it is also on year earlier than my
    dating. I am prejudice and still believe I have the correct dating.
    But they do give a more detailed explanation of the prophecy.

    The 455 B.C. date is way off in my opinion so you are going to ask
    you leadership how they came up with that date.
  6. Standard memberProper Knob
    Cornovii
    North of the Tamar
    Joined
    02 Feb '07
    Moves
    53689
    23 Apr '11 10:32
    Originally posted by RJHinds
    If you have any knowledge of what Jesus the Christ had to say,
    you apparently did not understand the meaning of what He said.
    I understand you are an atheist. That's enough proof for me that
    you lack understanding. Judge yourself.
    Do you think a Christian is a better moral person than an atheist?
  7. Standard memberRJHinds
    The Near Genius
    Fort Gordon
    Joined
    24 Jan '11
    Moves
    13644
    23 Apr '11 17:13
    Originally posted by Proper Knob
    Do you think a Christian is a better moral person than an atheist?
    No.
Back to Top

Cookies help us deliver our Services. By using our Services or clicking I agree, you agree to our use of cookies. Learn More.I Agree