Originally posted by @thinkofone
[b]No, this is not me trying too hard.
Okay. Then it is those whom you parrot who were "trying a bit too hard to make a YHWH to Jesus connection."
Keep in mind that I am challenging the following assertion:
<<The New Testament authors through choice of word called Jesus YHWH, Kurios. >>
It's a real reach. His disciples called Him "master" ...[text shortened]... ed to beg.
Hopefully you won't reach so far as to assert that the "rich man" is God or Jesus.[/b]
No, you just misunderstand the history of the word. The word
Kurios through the Septuagint started bearing special significance in the Ancient Mid-East particularly in religion. The Jews used it exclusively to refer to
YHWH in religious ceremonies. Jews, even Jews today, would not speak the divine name (the divine tetragrammaton). Hence, instead of speaking
YHWH they said
Adonai (Hebrew) or
Kurios (Greek). No Jew, would have used
Kurios post LXX to refer to a pagan deity.
The ancient Greeks used
Kurios to refer to their own deities. Yes, the word has meaning such as 'sir', 'master', 'ruler', etc. Yet, the word culturally, regardless of what epistemological origins it has, became to be used, by Jews and Greeks alike, to refer to their deity or deities (for the Greeks).
How the word evolved through the New Testament is interesting. You seem to understand all that I just described but you fail to see how the word came to be understood in its finality, which seems important to me, Silva, Kittel, and a host of other scholars (I've yet see you cite a reputable scholar). I believe, in a sense you are committing some form of the root fallacy.
However, yes, in the Gospels
Kurios can refer to others in a generic master, ruler, etc. sense. However, in the Epistles
Kurios exclusively refers to Christ as 'Lord'. The New Testament's use of the Old Testament makes this abundantly clear (one example is the use of Psalm 110 in Hebrews).
How can that connection, and this is just one of many, be missed by you? Have you not read the Scriptures? Have you not studied how the Scriptures repeatedly cite Christ as the fulfilment of Messianic promises and directly correlate him as LORD,
Kurios?
You are against the vast majority of scholarship and church tradition and confession.
The burden of proof for why this is not the case is on you. Not on me for why it is.
Good luck. 🙂
Out of pure curiosity-do you know Hebrew and/or Greek?