Originally posted by @rajk999
Christ reigns for 1000 yrs.
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Amen. I'm with you there.
He puts down all opposition
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Praise the Lord.
I'm with you there too!
He removes sin
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He deals with the sin nature in man.
He removes sin.
Okay.
The last enemy he destroys is death.
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That's what it says.
I am one with you there too.
He hands over the Kingdom to God.
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He delivers up the kingdom to God the Father that God may be all n all. Amen to
First Corinthians 15:27,28.
"For He has subjected all things under His feet. But when He says that all things are subjected, it is evident that all things are except Him who has subjected all things to Him. (v.27)
And when all things have been subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to Him who has subjected all things to Him, that God may be all in all." (v.28)
These two verses are not easy for me.
However, any attempt to use them to rob Christ of His eternal reigning I would resist.
Or any attempt to use these mysterious verses to say Christ is not God Himself I could not possibly accept. And I will explain why below, if that is where you are going.
His reign as King is over
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This could not possibly be true.
Otherwise
Hebrews 1:8 would be a mistake, which of course it is not.
But of the Son, "Your throne O God, is forever and ever, and the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of Your kingdom." (Heb. 1:8)
For HOW LONG ... is the Son's throne ?
"But of the SON, Your throne, O God, is forever and ever ..."
So
First Corinthians 15:27,28 cannot mean Christ no longer sits upon His reigning throne after the millennium.
Now, there is no reason to ASSUME (listen now!) ... there is no reason to ASSUME that the Father to whom Christ delivers up the kingdom is complete submission desires the Christ STOP reigning.
If the Father, to whom Christ subissively delivers up the millennial kingdom, has His will that Christ continue to reign
"forever and ever" then Christ continues to reign when God is all in all.
" And when all things have been subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to Him who has subjected all things to Him, that God may be all in all." (v.28)
When God the Father is
"all in all", God the Father
STILL has His WILL that the Son reign forever and ever
(Heb.1:8).
Why do you assume that the Father for some reason jealously changes His will that the Son's throne be
"forever and ever"?
Don't think like a fallen human being.
Enter into the thought of the Triune God.
I already indicated to you
"the ETERNAL KINGDOM ... of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ."
"For in this way the entrance into the eternal kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ ..." (2 Pet. 1:11a)
Can our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ have an
"eternal kingdom" with a "temporary reign"? That is absurd. He can have an
"eternal kingdom" if the Son's THRONE is forever and ever.
God is now King.
Christ is UNDER GOD.
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But when was Christ ever not under God?
But the millennial kingdom is also called
"the kingdom of God" in
Luke. It is usually called
"the kingdom of the heavens" in
Matthew
The Triune God has the kingdom of Christ and of God.
" ... the kingdom of Christ and of God" (Eph. 4:5)
I appreciate that a few posters with whom I sometimes disagree, at least have something I can work with, the Scriptures presented.
The throne last forever.
His reign as King does not.
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I would simply repeat that the Son's THRONE ... is forever and ever - therefore eternal
(Hebrews 1:8)
Its all in the Bible... but as usual you are entitled to twist it any way it makes you happy.
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Which word or words am I twisting in the following quotation?
But of the Son, "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever ..." (Heb 1:8a)
Which part am I twisting?