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26 Jul 07
Originally posted by NemesioI'm not talking even about the NIV translation. I simply used that to make a point. But the fact of the matter is that Gen 2 does not refer to time. It does not have to. It is simply telling us a little more.
If you translate 'formed' as 'had formed' when the latter has a totally
different conjugation in the original, then you are being intellectually
dishonest.
How is this not patent?
Nemesio
P.S., How did you explain the shrubs and grasses bit?
26 Jul 07
Originally posted by checkbaiterWell, words like 'before' indicate time. And since it says before shrubs
I'm not talking even about the NIV translation. I simply used that to make a point. But the fact of the matter is that Gen 2 does not refer to time. It does not have to. It is simply telling us a little more.
and grasses, God made Man, this is in direct contradiction with the
Genesis 1 account.
Further, a word like 'formed' as opposed to 'had formed' also indicate
time; that's the purpose of verbal conjugation.
Lastly, a word like 'Now' or 'So' (either translation is appropriate) similarly
indicates that the following sentences take place after the preceding ones.
How do you explain this?
Nemesio
26 Jul 07
Originally posted by checkbaiterWhy should I want to be redeemed of something I'm not responsible for?
They do not choose to sin. I know this in itself sounds contradictory. But every man, woman and child is born with sin already. But it is the potential to sin, because of their nature. Just as a cow has no choice but to give birth to a calf, man inherits Adam's sin nature.
So man has no choise but to sin. It is our nature. The law was our "schoolmaster" ...[text shortened]... )
The law merely shows how sinful we are, and should lead us to seek a Redeemer, Christ.
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26 Jul 07
Originally posted by NemesioI use the Companion bible by E.W.Bullinger and he explicitly states that a figure of speech is used here. I am not about to throw out my bible on an assumption. There is no other good reason than to see that more detail is being provided as in many other books. Ist and 2nd Kings with the Chronicles comes to mind...
Well, words like 'before' indicate time. And since it says before shrubs
and grasses, God made Man, this is in direct contradiction with the
Genesis 1 account.
Further, a word like 'formed' as opposed to 'had formed' also indicate
time; that's the purpose of verbal conjugation.
Lastly, a word like 'Now' or 'So' (either translation is appropr ...[text shortened]... sentences take place after the preceding ones.
How do you explain this?
Nemesio
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26 Jul 07
1 edit
Originally posted by AThousandYoungThat is the problem we all have. However, if you have no sin, then you are free and clear. I have heart problems, not my fault, but I have to live with it...Life is not always fair...
Why should I want to be redeemed of something I'm not responsible for?
26 Jul 07
Originally posted by checkbaiterHow can 'before' be a figure of speech to mean 'after?'
I use the Companion bible by E.W.Bullinger and he explicitly states that a figure of speech is used here. I am not about to throw out my bible on an assumption. There is no other good reason than to see that more detail is being provided as in many other books. Ist and 2nd Kings with the Chronicles comes to mind...
Nemesio
26 Jul 07
Originally posted by AThousandYoungNO!!!!!!! ALL haved sinned and fallen short of the glory of GOD.
If sin is something we choose or choose not to do, then it stands to reason that there are occasionally people who never sin. Now Jesus was supposedly one of these people, but he was supposedly God so there might be special rules for him.
Is it possible that there are people who are not God yet have managed to choose not to sin?
(God said so.)
If ANY man claims to be without sin he calls GOD a liar and the truth is not in him. (God said that also.)
26 Jul 07
Originally posted by awalt08So, God set up the system wherein we are damned from the beginning, and then expects to be praised for providing us with salvation from the situation he is responsible for in the first place?
but luckily for us Jesus the only man without sin died for our sins and then conquered death so that with him we dont have to die
God works in mysterious ways.
26 Jul 07
Originally posted by TheSkipperhe isn't responsible for it. Adam and Eve caused this dilemma.
So, God set up the system wherein we are damned from the beginning, and then expects to be praised for providing us with salvation from the situation he is responsible for in the first place?
God works in mysterious ways.