Originally posted by @freakykbh
Apparently when one is "blinded by science" the ability to read goes out the window, chasing the reason which has fled.
No one said anything about the synchronicity of a woman's cycle with or even caused by the lunar cycle.
But the average menstrual cycle is 28 days.
That coincides with the average lunar cycle, which also lasts for about ...[text shortened]... ody is the same design behind the movement of the heavenly bodies.
Really: what are the odds?
Apparently when one is "blinded by science" the ability to read goes out the window,
... No one said anything about the synchronicity of a woman's cycle with or even caused by the lunar cycle.
Err, Apparently when one is "blinded by religion/flat-eathism" the ability to read goes out the window;
The link I just showed which your apparent "blindness by religion/flat-eathism" made you fail to read the suggestion that synchronicity of a woman's cycle may be caused by the lunar cycle. Reminder of that;
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Menstrual_synchrony#Lunar_synchronization
"..Cutler[52] and Law[53] hypothesized that menstrual synchrony is caused by menstrual cycles synchronizing with lunar phases. ..."
-and I clearly DID directly showed the above exact quote in my last post which you apparently failed to read and which DIRECTLY contradicts your complaint of "No one said anything about the synchronicity of a woman's cycle
with or even
caused by the lunar cycle." So it is clearly YOUR ability to read, NOT mine, that can be questioned here.
There are plenty of other people that clearly said the synchronicity of a woman's cycle may be caused by the lunar cycle, including Charles Darwin;
http://www.sciencefocus.com/qa/it-coincidental-human-menstrual-cycle-about-same-length-moon-cycle
"...Charles Darwin thought that the 28-day human menstrual cycle was evidence that our ancestors lived on the seashore and needed to synchronise with the tides. ..."
-its a very old theory that is now largely discredited.
Well?
Really: what are the odds?
EXACTLY 1 i.e. the probability of successfully finding arbitrary random number coincidences that are just coincidences is EXACTLY 1.
They don't mean anything.
The probability of there existing coincidences is 1.
Therefore there existing coincidences is no coincidence but rather is an inevitable result of probability.
It would be an inexplicable mystery if there existed no coincidences.