24 Oct '05 21:17>
Originally posted by NemesioNemesio,
Lucifershammer:
You cite an interesting passage in St Matthew 16:19. Every English translation I've ever
seen has been dishonest relative to the Greek. The verse reads, in Greek:
Doso soi tas kleidas tes basileias ton ouranon,
I will give to you the keys of the kingdom of the heavens,
kai o ean deses epi tes ges estai [b]dedemenon en tois ...[text shortened]... he careful grammar of the Greek and is totally concordant with the Matthian
reading.
Nemesio[/b]
Thanks for the Greek transliteration. One learns something new every day! 😀
Nevertheless, one needs to be careful how one uses tense in a situation that involves a being that is essentially out of Time - i.e. God. Does it make sense to say that sins have 'already' been forgiven by God prior to absolution by the priest if God's forgiveness is an event that does not take place in time?
I think the idea of causality is more relevant here. The priest is only able to absolve the sins of the penitent because God absolves the sins of the penitent and is only able to forgive the sins of the penitent because God forgives the sins of the penitent. So, the situation here is not, AFAICS, one where an Infinite God is at the mercy of arbitrary decisions of priests on earth*. Rather, the priest's action is more of a final confirmation to the penitent that his sins have, indeed, been forgiven.
Cheers,
LH
---
* This reminds me of the situation in the film Dogma where a supposed "indulgence" frees any person who walks through the door of some church from all sin (including mortal sin). Naturally, the film gives you a good idea of what the Church does not teach.