Originally posted by Zahlanzi
" Jesus refers to the flood of Noah"
yes, jesus came to teach the ignorant savages about morality. he didn't covered anything scientific because we could find that out on our own (and we did)
Do you have your ad homs lined up ?
The whole audience was composed of "ignorant savages" quite inferior to yourself no doubt.
The fitness of the audience as compared to you was not my concern. I know you have an exalted opinion of your own moral superiority to perhaps the entire first century audience there.
What I was looking for was if the teaching of
Matthew 24:37-39 is for you a philosophical/moral good teaching. Let me see if this becomes more clear.
he used the story of noah to paint a picture the ignorant savages could comprehend.
You appear quite arrogant and self righteously condescending. In the passage Jesus does not refer to things which are so "ignorant and savage" per se. Rather his warning is about quite legitimate human matters such as -
"they were in those days before the flood, eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage"
Are these your "ignorant and savage" activities Jesus needs to correct them about ?
So considering your comment, I would say that it is true that the generation of
Noah was totally given over to violence. And the Scriptures says -
"the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually." (Gen. 6:5)
But in
Matthew 24:37-39 we see Jesus emphasizing not the violence and wickedness but the distraction of being preoccupied with rather mundane and legitimate interprizes of worldly life.
The generation may have been morally better, not particularly being savage and ignorant as you charge. But they were still in danger of just being befuddled and stupefied, too busy buying, selling, marrying to be prepared for the change of the age and Christ's second coming.
I ask you if this was a good philosophical / moral directive and you AD HOM the entire audience, glaring down your self righteous spectacles that they were - oh so much more savage and ignorant than yourself, who I suppose needed no such lesson from Jesus.
he had a limited amount of time, lots of morality messages to communicate and lots of places to go to ON FOOT. do you think he had to bother to explain "btw, guys, you know that noah's flood didn't actually happened, right?".
At other points in His ministry He took the time to tell the audience that
"Scripture cannot be broken" (John 10:35) . I don't see why His attitude about the only "Scripture" they had in
Matthew 24 would have been different.
Jesus reminds and assumes that the audience realized the veracity of Scripture when He said
" and Scripture cannot be broken " to the Jews in
John 10. Do you have some reason why He would count the same Hebrew Bible to be broken by declaring the Genesis flood as untrue?
He believed it.
He assumed and reminded that His audience also believed it.
Furthermore, Jesus said that the people under the preaching of
Jonah would stand in the judgment with the present audience of that generation listening to Him.
"Ninevite men will stand up in the judgment with this generation and will condemn it, because they repented at the preaching of Jonah, and behold something greater than Jonah is here." (Matt. 12:41)
This proves that Jesus believed and taught as history the story of
Jonah - the big fish and all else. Why would Jesus say that fictitious people would stand in the judgment along with real people?
He would warn that REAL people of the story of
Jonah would appear at the judgment before God along with REAL people of His contemporary generation.
If He regarded
Jonah as true history there's no reason to doubt that He regarded
Genesis as true history as well ...
"and Scripture cannot be broken."
Jesus also regarded the
Genesis 19 story of the judgment
Sodom to be history. If they had been exposed to what His contempory audience had witnessed in His ministry, He says the city would have continued to exist to that time.
" And you Capernaum, who have been exalted to heaven, to Hades you will be brought down. For if the works of power which took place in you had taken place in Sodom, it would have remained until today." (Matt. 10:23)
Can you explain why Jesus would teach that a fictitious place, fictitiously judged, mythologically judged would have conceivably continued to exist to His day? He didn't stop to explain it was a myth in
Genesis 19. Rather He indicated that it was serious history to be considered.
the message of that fragment is "be fukin nice, all the time, because you don't know how much time you have left"
is the message invalidated in any way just because we know for a fact that noah's flood didn't happen?
As entertaining as your sarcasm is, the evidence is that
Jesus took
Genesis seriously.
Noah's flood and the destruction of
Sodom He teaches as history regardless of how you take them.
In
Matthew 10:15 Jesus speaks of the people of Sodom faring better in some future judgment then His contemporary audience.
"Truly I say to you, It will be more tolerable for the land of Sodom and Gomorrah in the day of judgment than for that city." (Matt. 10:15)
So I see that Jesus Christ took Genesis as serious history.
So far at best, I think you have "good" philosophical / moral directives given by Someone who
believed the stories of Noah's flood and
Jonah and
Sodom and Gomorah.
At least you have to admit that
HE seemed to have believed these stories.
Now you say WE KNOW no flood of Noah happened. I don't know that. My position is that if it was good enough for Jesus it must be good to believe.
That is not to assume every and any Creationist explanation in their exposition of what happened globally and so-on has to be what must be believed. But the basic account of a flood dealing with the "world" of that age, I have no reason to doubt.
Deal with the fact that
Jesus believed
Genesis and taught your philosophical / moral lessons out of it. Were these lessons good or bad?
If you trust them to have been good, then instead of imagining Jesus was
too busy to argue with them like a modern day Internet Infidel, He simply grounded His teaching in what He and many of the Jews listening believed.
Now was the teaching of
Matthew 24:37-39 "good" philosophical / moral teaching ?